What does it mean to find eigen values and functions of an infinite well?

Noone1982
Messages
82
Reaction score
0
What does it mean to find eigenvalues and eigen functions of an infinite well?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
When you solve the Shrodinger equation for an infinite well potential and obtain the eigenvalues and eigenfunctions you are finding the allowed states of a particle subjected to this potential. The only energies that a particle like this could ever be measured to have are the energy eigenvalues. The eigenfunctions represent the possible wavefunctions of the particle when it has a definite energy. Remember that the interpretation of the wavefunction is that its magnitude squared at a given point gives the probability density for the particle to be located at that point

It is possible for the particle to have wavefunctions other than the eigenfunctions. The particle can have a wavefunction that is any linear combination of the eigenfunctions. In the case of the infinite well potential the eigenfunctions are the sin and cos functions, so the possible wavefunctions are very general: any function with a Fourrier series. But, if the particle does not have an eigenfunction as a wavefunction then we can not be sure what energy the particle will be measured to have. The probability that a given eigenvalue of the energy will be measured corresponds to the coefficient of the eigenfunction in the linear combination.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top