Where Did I Go Wrong in Deriving Tensor Component Derivatives?

RicardoMP
Messages
48
Reaction score
2
Homework Statement
I want to prove that [tex] -\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}=\frac{1}{\not{p}}\gamma^\mu \frac{1}{\not{p}}[/tex]
Relevant Equations
[tex] \not{p}=\gamma^\mu p_\mu[/tex]
This was my attempt at a solution and was wondering where did I go wrong: -\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}=-\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}[\gamma^\nu p_\nu]^{-1}=\gamma^\nu\frac{\partial p_\nu}{\partial p_\mu}[\gamma^\sigma p_\sigma]^{-2}=\gamma^\nu\delta^\nu_\mu\frac{1}{\not{p}^2}=\gamma^\mu\frac{1}{\not{p}^2}
Any hint would be great! Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Apply the Leibniz rule to \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial p_{\mu}} \frac{1}{\not\! p} \right) \not \! p \ .
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top