Equation 1.51 in Goldstein's 3rd edition of Classical Mechanics

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on understanding Equation 1.51 from Goldstein's Classical Mechanics, specifically the dot-notation and its implications in derivations. The equation relates the partial derivatives of velocity and position with respect to generalized coordinates and velocities. The confusion arises from the transition between time derivatives and partial derivatives, particularly in the context of Lagrangian mechanics. Clarifications highlight that generalized velocities can be treated as independent variables for differentiation, which simplifies the derivation. Recommendations for supplementary resources include Sommerfeld's Lectures and Becker's Introduction to Theoretical Mechanics for further study.
mjordan2nd
Messages
173
Reaction score
1
I am trying to self-study some physics, and have gotten a little stuck in one of Goldstein's derivations. The dot-notation is still confusing to me. Equation 1.51 in Goldstein states that<br /> \frac{\partial \vec{v_i}}{\partial \dot{q_j}} = \frac{\partial \vec{r_i}}{q_j}<br />

I do not understand how he arrives at this equation. He states that this comes from equation 1.46, which is

<br /> v_i = \frac{dr_i}{dt} = \frac{\partial r_i}{\partial q_k}\dot{q_k} + \frac{\partial r_i}{\partial t}<br />

where the summation convention is implied, but I do not see how he goes from here to 1.51. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Never mind. I've got it. Now that I see it it is pretty damned obvious. You literally just take the derivative. I feel stupid for asking.
 
It's not so stupid! It's even a somwhat sloppy physicists' notation, which is however very convenient. The argument goes as follows:

On the one hand your second equation, which is given by taking the time derivative via the chain rule
r_i=r_i[q_k(t),t] \; \Rightarrow \; \dot{r}_i=\frac{\partial r_i}{\partial q_k} \dot{q}_k+\frac{\partial r_i}{\partial t}.

On the other hand within the Lagrange or d'Alembert formalism you forget that \dot{x} is the time derivative of a quantity x but treat x and \dot{x} simply as names for independent variables. In this sense you take the partial derivatives of an expression wrt. \dot{q}_k as if these "generalized velocities" were independent variables.

However, if you again take a total time derivative, you read \dot{q}_k again as time derivative of q_k, i.e., you write
\frac{\mathrm{d} \dot{q}_k}{\mathrm{d} t}=\ddot{q}_k
but the partial derivative wrt. time only refers to the explicit time dependence of a variable which by definition is not contained in the time dependence of the q_k or \dot{q}_k,i.e., you have
\frac{\partial q_k}{\partial t}=\frac{\dot{\partial q}_k}{\partial t}=0.

When I started to learn analytical mechanics, this was a big mystery for me too, but the book by Goldstein at the end helped a lot. Another of my alltime favorites for classical physics are Sommerfeld's Lectures on Theoretical Physics (for point mechanics it's vol. 1), which I hightly recommend to read in parallel with Goldstein.
 
Hello, and thanks for your reply! This is exactly some of my difficulty with this subject: when we only explicit dependence counts, or when implicit dependence counts as well -- specifically with things such as time-dependent constraints. I suppose I need to go back and look over some of my multivariable calculus notes.

I have never tried (or even heard of) the Sommerfeld lectures, and I will certainly look into them. I have an old book by Robert Becker called Introduction to Theoretical Mechanics that I have found particularly useful.

Thanks again for your response!
 
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
Back
Top