Hi, I’m a bit confused.
I am familiar with the chain rule: if y=f(g(t,x),h(t,x)) then dy/dt=dy/dg*dg/dt+dy/dh*dh/dt
To show that an equation is invariant under a galiliean transform, it’s partially necessary to show that the equation takes the same form both for x and for x’=x-v(T). So if you...