Hi everyone,
For integrable f,g:\left[a,b\right]\rightarrow\mathbb{R} with f(x)\leq g(x) for all x\in\left[a,b\right], it's a basic property of the riemann integral that
\[\int_a^b f(x)\,dx \leq \int_a^b g(x)\,dx\]
My question is whether the strict version of this inequality holds...