- #1
Gregg
- 459
- 0
Homework Statement
## \sqrt{2\pi} a \exp({a^2 \over 2} ) P( \xi \geq a) \to 1 ##
## \xi \text{ ~ } N(0,1) ##
Homework Equations
This implies##\sqrt{2\pi} a \exp({a^2 \over 2} ) \int_a^\infty a \exp({a^2\over 2}) \exp (-{x^2 \over2}) dx \to 1 ##
The Attempt at a Solution
The integral doesn't seem to converge to anything obvious to me. I think that as a grows,the integrand grows large but the interval in which we integrate over is getting smaller.
Try and use a substitution.
##x^2 = a^2 + 2y ## and do some rearranging.
## \int_0^\infty y \frac{\exp({-y\over 2})}{\sqrt{1+2y/a^2}} dy ##
Monotone convergence theorem
we have that ## y \frac{\exp({-y\over 2})}{\sqrt{1+2y/a^2}} \nearrow y \exp({-y\over 2}) ##
So
## \mu (f_a) \nearrow \mu(f) < \infty ##
##\mu(f) = 1 ##
Is this right? Do I need to show that ##\mu(f_n) \nearrow \mu(f) ## ? also the subscript n doesn't appear in the integrand, I couldn't use a could I, and a seems to be continuous and so it isn't a sequence of functions?
Last edited: