Advanced Calculus: Proving x=cosx for x in (0,π/2)

kimkibun
Messages
28
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement



Show that x=cosx, for some xε(0,∏/2).

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Define f(x)=x-cosx, i want to show that for some aε(0,∏/2), limx→af(x)=0. is this correct?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
kimkibun said:

Homework Statement



Show that x=cosx, for some xε(0,∏/2).

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Define f(x)=x-cosx, i want to show that for some aε(0,∏/2), limx→af(x)=0. is this correct?

No, that won't help you.
If the y value at x=0 is negative, and the y value at x = pi/2 is positive (these values can be shown because it's easy to compute them), then what can we conclude from this?

Does this logic extend to every function? Think about y=1/x, at x=-1 we have y=-1, and at x=1 we have y=1, but the function doesn't cross the x-axis at all.
 
Mentallic said:
No, that won't help you.
If the y value at x=0 is negative, and the y value at x = pi/2 is positive (these values can be shown because it's easy to compute them), then what can we conclude from this?

Does this logic extend to every function? Think about y=1/x, at x=-1 we have y=-1, and at x=1 we have y=1, but the function doesn't cross the x-axis at all.


do you have a better explanation sir?
 
kimkibun said:
do you have a better explanation sir?

I suppose.

Take the function y=2x. How do we show it crosses the x-axis between x=-1 and x=1?

Well, what is the y value at x=-1? y=2(-1)=-2. So at x=-1, the function is below the x-axis.
What about at x=1? y=2(1)=2, which is above the x-axis. So since the function went from below the x-axis at x=-1 to above the x-axis at x=1, does this mean we can conclude that it must've crossed the x-axis somewhere in between? Yes!

Why? Well again, think about the function y=1/x and try using the same procedure I just showed you. Everything seems to be the same, except that this function doesn't cross the x-axis. What's different?
 
It is a direct application of a known theorem - I guess it was discussed during lecture or is mentioned in your book.

Mentallic tries to guide you to the intuitive understanding behind this theorem.
 
Borek said:
It is a direct application of a known theorem - I guess it was discussed during lecture or is mentioned in your book.

Mentallic tries to guide you to the intuitive understanding behind this theorem.

Right, it was silly of me not to mention the theorem involved in solving this problem.

kimkibun, the Intermediate Value Theorem is what you're looking for.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top