Again an electric potential question ?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the electric potential at a point on the x-axis due to a uniformly distributed charge. The initial attempt at solving the problem resulted in an incorrect answer, prompting a clarification on the use of the formula V = kq/r, which is only applicable for point charges. Participants emphasized the need to integrate the electric field along a path from the point to infinity, addressing concerns about improper integrals and limits. The correct approach involves integrating the electric field expression derived from the charge distribution. Ultimately, the user successfully recalculated the potential and confirmed the accuracy of their solution.
Fazza3_uae
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Again an electric potential question ?

Homework Statement




Question # 1

A charge of 7.034 nC is uniformly distributed
along the x-axis from −4 m to 4 m.
What is the electric potential (relative to
zero at infinity) of the point at 5 m on the
x-axis?





Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution




I got 21.0728 and its wrong :cry: How come ??
 
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how did you get this answer?
 


The Attempt at a Solution



I know that E in this case = kq/[a*(L+a)]

a : distance from point P to x2 ( P-x2)
L : distance from x1 to x2 ( x2-x1)

The denominator = r²= [a*(L+a)]

I want Potential V=kq/r

r=Sqr(The denominator = r²= [a*(L+a)])

So I just insert the values and got that answer *_* which is wrong
 


Fazza3_uae said:
I want Potential V=kq/r


V = kq/r is only valid for a point charge or a uniformly charged sphere.
You have to integrate E \bullet ds along a path from the
point with x = 5 to infinity.
 


thx 4 clarifying about the potential ^^

But is'nt taking an integral from 5 to infinity will give me infinity and when i multiply infinity with E i will get also infinity ?


In case what u r saying is correct what is the value of r then ??

Is it the distance from point p to x1 or to x2 ? or its something else !

Appreciate Ur Help in Advance Mr. willem2 :)
 


This computation doesn't have an r in it. you already gave an expression for E without
R in it. you can integrate the field along the x axis, so E has the same direction as ds, so you
get

\int_5^{\infty} \frac {k q} {(x-x_1)(x-x_2)}dx


This kind of integral with infinity as a limit is called an improper integral and it is actually a
limit:

\int_a^{\infty} f(x) dx = \lim_{L \to +\infty} \int_a^L f(x) dx
 


Aha , i get it now. I will submitt the answer & i am sure it will be correct this time , I'll be right back in minutes ^^

THx again Boss ^^ Really appreciate Ur help !
 


Wow nice Job Friend , its absolutly right ^^

thank U very much ^^
 
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