ATH 101: Integration by Parts - Exponential Distribution

michonamona
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Integration by parts - Exponential distribution

Homework Statement


Solve the following definite integral:

\int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\lambda} x e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} dx

I'm asked to solve this integral. The solution is \lambda, although I'm not sure how this was done.



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


\int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{1}{\lambda} x e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} dx

= \frac{1}{\lambda} \int^{\infty}_{0} x e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} dx

=\frac{1}{\lambda} \left( \left[ x e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} \right] ^{\infty}_{0} - \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} dx \right), integration by parts.

The \left[ x e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} \right] ^{\infty}_{0} term, by fundamental theorem of calculus is 0. Thus,

= - \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} dx \right),

I don't know what to do at this point, because as far as I know, taking the definite integral of this term will result in e^{-\frac{x}{\lambda}} , which, solving for 0 and infinity will yield -1.

Where have I gone wrong?

I appreciate your input.

M
 
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Close. You forgot the chain rule. The derivative of e^-u is -e^-u. (or antiderivative.)
 
Thanks whitish,

I was in the middle of editing the formula after your post. Do you mind looking at what I have posted again?

Thanks
 
nevermind. I see what's happening now, and I'm getting the same answer as you are. with your last integral you can just use U substitution. are you sure just lambda is the right answer?
 
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