Calculating Velocity Vector after Ball Impact with a Surface

AI Thread Summary
To calculate the resulting velocity vector of a ball after impact with a surface, the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection, assuming no additional factors like friction or rotation. Given the velocity vector V {0, -10, 0} and normal N {0, 1, 0}, the y-component of the velocity after the bounce will be affected by the elasticity coefficient k, which scales the kinetic energy. The kinetic energy before impact is calculated as 50 Joules for a 1 kg ball, leading to a post-impact velocity vector of k * {0, 10, 0}. This means the resulting velocity vector is directly proportional to the elasticity coefficient and reflects the vertical component of the initial velocity.
scorp007
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Hi,

I'm trying to figure out how to calculate the resulting velocity vector of a ball after impact with a surface.

If the velocity vector is V {Vx, Vy, Vz} and The ball hits a surface with normal N {Nx, Ny, Nz} what would be the resulting vector of the new velocity?

Assuming the ball has an elasticity coefficient 0 <= k <= 1.

The angle of incidence won't be equal to the angle of reflection would it? :confused:

As an example V could be {0, -10, 0} and N {0, 1, 0}

Thanks.
 
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scorp007 said:
Hi,

I'm trying to figure out how to calculate the resulting velocity vector of a ball after impact with a surface.

If the velocity vector is V {Vx, Vy, Vz} and The ball hits a surface with normal N {Nx, Ny, Nz} what would be the resulting vector of the new velocity?

Assuming the ball has an elasticity coefficient 0 <= k <= 1.

The angle of incidence won't be equal to the angle of reflection would it? :confused:

As an example V could be {0, -10, 0} and N {0, 1, 0}

Thanks.
Unless you are given some additional information, such as friction or that the ball is initially rotating, yes, the angle of reflection will equal the angle of incidence. In the example you give, the ball is striking the surface perpendicularly so even with friction, unless it is rotating it will bounce straight up. The only thing you need to calclulate is the y component of velocity.

Saying "the ball has an elasticity coefficient 0 <= k <= 1." means that the total energy after the bounce will be k times the total energy before the bounce. I assume the V given is the velocity just before bouncing and you want the V just after bouncing so the potential energy is the same at each time and you can take that to be 0. You only need to look at the kinetic energy. What is the kinetic energy of a ball of mass m with V= (0, -10, 0)? What is the velocity of a ball, going upward, of mass m with kinetic energy k times that?
 
HallsofIvy said:
Unless you are given some additional information, such as friction or that the ball is initially rotating, yes, the angle of reflection will equal the angle of incidence. In the example you give, the ball is striking the surface perpendicularly so even with friction, unless it is rotating it will bounce straight up. The only thing you need to calclulate is the y component of velocity.

Saying "the ball has an elasticity coefficient 0 <= k <= 1." means that the total energy after the bounce will be k times the total energy before the bounce. I assume the V given is the velocity just before bouncing and you want the V just after bouncing so the potential energy is the same at each time and you can take that to be 0. You only need to look at the kinetic energy. What is the kinetic energy of a ball of mass m with V= (0, -10, 0)? What is the velocity of a ball, going upward, of mass m with kinetic energy k times that?

Thanks for the reply.

Lets ignore the friction and rotation for now.
Assuming the mass is 1kg.

Ek = 1/2 * m * v^2 =
1/2 * 1 * (sqrt(0^2 + (-10)^2 + 0^2))^2 =
1/2 * 100 = 50.

Not too sure how the kinetic energy fits into the equation... :redface:

In this case, yes just the y component, but this was only a simple example.

Wouldn't the resulting velocity vector V be k * {0, 10, 0} (incident velocity reflected)?
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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