For the first one, proceed as follows to solve the circuit.
Using KCL, calculate the current in the two resistors and set their sum, which occurs at V1, equal to zero.
(V1-Vi)/R1 + (V1-Vo)/R2 = 0
Also knowing that Vo = -A*V1 (A is the opamp gain) we can substitute this in the first equation.
(V1-Vi)/R1 + (V1 + A*V1)/R2 = 0
After a little algebra, we get:
V1 = Vi * R2/(R2 + A*R1 + R1)
From this we can get the current into R1 from Vi:
Ii = (Vi-V1)/R1 = Vi*(1 - R2/(R2 + A*R1 +R1))/R1
The resistance seen at the left end of R1 is the voltage there, Vi, divided by the current into R1:
Zin = Vi/Ii = R1*(R2+(1+A)*R1)/((1+A)*R1) = (R2+(1+A)*R1)/(1+A)
Notice that in the case of an ideal opamp where A -> infinity, this expression reduces to R1, which is what you would expect the input resistance to be.
To account for the finite open loop gain, substitute an expression for finite open loop gain for the symbol A in the expression above.
For example, if the opamp has a simple one pole roll off, then a suitable expression for the finite gain would be:
A = Ao/(1 + s*to) where Ao is the DC gain and to is the time constant of the roll off.
You can solve your second example similarly.