Chain Rule for Derivatives: cos(tan(pi x))^1/2

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I had my midterm earlier today, and I can't stop thinking about this question

cos*(tan pi*x)^1/2

Is it right if I used the chain rule? And in my mind I think that the question was meant to be cos(tan(pi x))^1/2 and not cos(1)*(tan pi*x)^1/2 which will then be the result of using the product rule and chain rule.
 
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I'm sorry, but cos*(tan pi*x)^1/2 doesn't make any sense. Probably a typo, but of what value do you take the cosine?

Is it cos(1)*(tan pi*x)^1/2 ? then you will have to use the product rule and the chain rule.
Is it cos((tan pi*x)^1/2), then you will have to use the chain rule several times...
 


micromass said:
I'm sorry, but cos*(tan pi*x)^1/2 doesn't make any sense. Probably a typo, but of what value do you take the cosine?

Is it cos(1)*(tan pi*x)^1/2 ? then you will have to use the product rule and the chain rule.
Is it cos((tan pi*x)^1/2), then you will have to use the chain rule several times...

The question that showed up in the exam was cos*(tan pi*x)^1/2. or " Cosine times the square root of tangent pi x". I'm not sure if you can call it "times" since cosine is just beside the square root of tangent pi x.
 


But that makes no sense? how can you multiply cos with something?? cos is a function, not a number...
 


micromass said:
But that makes no sense? how can you multiply cos with something?? cos is a function, not a number...

Yeah, so I decided to consider that cos*(tan pi*x)^1/2 is cos ( tan (pi * x ) )^1/2.

Notice also the original tangent it's just tan pi*x not tan (pi*x).
 


Wow, that sucks to have that as an exam question... You don't even know what they mean...
 


micromass said:
Wow, that sucks to have that as an exam question... You don't even know what they mean...

Yes..especially if the midterm had only 4 questions...sigh...if I didn't get this question I'll get a 75.
 


I believe this would just be a multiple chain rule problem.

Namely:

-sin*(tan pi x)^1/2 * 1/2*(tan pi x)^1/2 * sec^2 pi x * pi

This can be simplified of course. I'm fairly certain that's the answer. There would be no product rule because there only is one x--it would strictly be chain rule.
 
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