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johnschmidt
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Sometimes when I see pulley and rope questions people will say "for a non-extensible rope the tension is uniform throughout the rope". But I am now learning pulleys and rotational inertia and it seems to be necessary to consider the rope on either side of a pulley to have _different_ tension if the pulley is being accelerated rotationally.
Why would this different tension not apply to a frictionless massless pulley that is being accelerated rotationally?
For example, here we see the rope have different tension on each side of the pulley:
Why would this different tension not apply to a frictionless massless pulley that is being accelerated rotationally?
For example, here we see the rope have different tension on each side of the pulley:
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