Conservative fields in a transverse plane of a transmission line

maria clara
Messages
56
Reaction score
0
Hello,

As far as I understand, a transmission line is simply a wave-guide for TEM modes.
If the waves are propagating in the z direction so Hz=Ez=0. How does this fact leads to the conclusion that in any transverse plane (xy plane) the fields are conservative?
Thanks a lot.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
maria clara said:
As far as I understand, a transmission line is simply a wave-guide for TEM modes. If the waves are propagating in the z direction so Hz=Ez=0. How does this fact leads to the conclusion that in any transverse plane (xy plane) the fields are conservative?

Since there's no z-component of H (or E), the electric field (magnetic field) distribution in any given transverse plane at any given instant of time is the same as the static electric-field distribution. Question: Why is this true?

With this information at hand, go back to Faraday's Law in integral form and look at the static case (i.e. d/dt=0). Question: What does it mean that the line integral is equal to zero?

EDIT: If you stop at path-independence, I obviously made it too easy for you. To really understand your problem you should look at the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conservative_vector_field#Definition" and understand how it applies to your scenario.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top