Austin0 said:
I myself find the, physical contraction as a consequence of EM and atomic light speed interactions hypothesis very convincing. But as you have shown here it is somewhat problematic in application to specific scenarios. [..]
harrylin said:
I did not see yuiop show such a thing... I see no such problem.
You did not comment on the previous sentences.
Austin0 said:
If we assume the EM contraction of ship B it is clear that we cannot apply that explanation to the contraction of ship A as measured in B. We must assume a purely kinematic source in this case.
So would you say the relative contraction of ship A was the result of physical EM forces?
Or would you agree that purely kinematic changes due to the increasing relative velocity effected an equivalent contraction indistinguishable from the contraction of B as observed in A?
If we consider a third ship C with an inertial velocity equal to the final velocity of [ship] B then we see B expanding relative to that frame as it accelerates. If we assume the EM interpretation in frame C then the expansion is a result of decreasing contraction from the initial velocity as the velocity decreases with deceleration.
This is not a problem with the kinematic interpretation but is an obvious contradiction if we assume actual physical contraction. If the contraction is the result of actual tensile forces due to light speed interactions within the structure, then it logically is directly dependent on the velocity, relative not to any frame, but to the absolutely invariant speed of light.
harrylin said:
Perhaps you forgot that the speed of light relative to an atom depends on the chosen frame? It's a direct result of our definition of simultaneity. The speed of light relative to an object (also called "closing speed") is not invariant but frame dependent, just as the EM effects.
I would say that any quantitative evaluation of the speed of light relative to an atom depends on the chosen frame.
But I made no such evaluation . I simply talked about a change in velocity with no implication that it was even determinable whether it was an increase or decrease.
When I said invariant wrt light I was not not talking about the frame invariance of measured speed but the independent isotropic constancy that we assume. That all photons absent the influence of gravity are moving at the same "absolute speed"
In your opinion does this or does this not imply some indeterminate, but actual, change in velocity relative to light resulting from a change of velocity through acceleration
??
Austin0 said:
it then follows that if a system is changing velocity it must be either increasing or decreasing it's speed relative to light.
Obviously the change can be either way according to relative frames but do you think it could be both increasing and decreasing relative to light /
Do you think that the fact that we can not determine the reality means that there is no definite condition?
harrylin said:
Well, obviously this is necessarily so (as described from any inertial frame). That follows from the second postulate - no need for such a complex consideration! As interpreted from frame C, the rockets fly along with light that is going in one direction and counter the light going in the other direction.
Austin0 said:
Contracting or expanding but not both.
So assuming that the EM contraction is correct there is still no way to determine how it would apply. It could only be a partial cause for the observed phenomena with the necessary assumption of purely kinematic effects also.
With no way to tell which is which. In the case here. Ship B is both contracting and expanding.
harrylin said:
It applies just the same as most other things in physics, such as electric and magnetic fields as well as energy. Kinetic energy is perhaps the clearest:
1. a rocket takes off, so that -according to the launch pad frame calculations- its length contracts and the rocket's kinetic energy increases.
2. you choose another reference frame, and in the new reference frame the rocket's length "is" contracted and the rocket "has" more kinetic energy.
Hopefully it is clear that 1. and 2. are physically completely different cases, and also that these effects are "relative" to the frame of observation; "is" and "has" are not absolutes.
Else you would have that the energy increases AND decreases, which is a contradiction.
I think there may be a bit of a typo in case 2. I assume you meant to write "is" expanded and "has" less kinetic energy.
In any case i don't think this is quite analogous. Momentum and KE are both inherently kinematic evaluations. Applying to interactions with external entities. Completely relative values that say nothing about the internal conditions of the particle in question.
As far as the contraction , as I stated previously; viewed kinematically there is no problem with the ship contracting relative to one frame and expanding relative to another.
harrylin said:
It is similarly wrong to say that ship B is both contracting and expanding; that's an error due to flip-flopping reference systems (a major cause of errors, like mixing dollars and euros!). We should say that ship B is contracting and gaining energy according to system A, and expanding and loosing energy according to system C (I assume not B as you wrote).
Well I think if you look that is exactly what I did say (the bolded text without the reference to KE)
I was not flipping between reference frame but rather looking at the implications of the purely physical interpretation of contraction as applied to both frames at once.
Consider the fictitious paradox of contraction.
Length A is smaller than length B AND length B is smaller than length A
Obviously the correct application of the L transformation resolves this in a completely logically consistent way. But that resolution is a kinematic one. It includes the relativity of simultaneity.
Now we can say that some physical EM contraction is happening in addition to the kinematic factors and still be logically consistent.
But to propose that both A and B are physically contracted as a result of EM forces ,to me at least, brings it right back to a logical contradiction.
Austin0 said:
[..] EM expansion works fine in C if we assume C is at rest [..]
harrylin said:
The laws of physics are defined relative to a reference system that is presumably "in rest".
Yes of course.But to my understanding the relevant physics in this case is the maths of the Lorentz transformation.This is a kinematic description that predicts the expected measurements of relative frames .
As I said I assume this to be a totally accurate description of reality. But the maths do not per se, directly describe or entail any physics interpretation. Does not make any statement regarding the physical cause of contraction or provide a definition to determine what is due to actual EM forces and what is a consequence of relative simultaneity or pure relative motion.
This is a matter of interpretation.
Austin0 said:
But both depictions of the physics occurring in the ship during acceleration cannot be accurate.
Make sense??
harrylin said:
They cannot both be "absolutely true". That makes perfect sense, and it's the starting point of SR and already of classical relativity (such as in Newton's mechanics) that we cannot determine "who is right".
I never implied that it was a question of determining who was right.
What I was suggesting was that it was also impossible to determine what was due to actual EM forces and what was due to kinematic effects.