- #1
w3390
- 346
- 0
Homework Statement
Find the energy of a particle of mass m in an infinite square well with one end at x=-L/2 and the other at x=L/2.
Homework Equations
Schrodinger Equation
The Attempt at a Solution
To save time, I won't type the solving of the differential equation which results in the sin+cos terms. I eventually get to the point where I have found that [tex]\Psi[/tex](x)=Asin(2n*PI*x/L). Using boundary conditions, I found k=2n*PI/L.
From my differential equation, I have that k^2 = 2mE/h(bar)^2.
When I plug in k=2n*PI/L to the k^2 equation, it simplifies to:
E = (n^2*h^2)/(2mL^2)
My question is whether or not this is correct because when the infinite well has one end at x=0 and the other at x=L, the result is that:
E = (n^2*h^2)/(8mL^2)
It shouldn't matter where the well is placed as long as the width is the same. Why am I getting two different answers?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.