Expectation value <p> of the ground state of hydrogen

Warda Anis
Messages
3
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


How should I calculate the expectation value of momentum of an electron in the ground state in hydrogen atom.

Homework Equations


Untitled.png

The Attempt at a Solution


I am trying to apply the p operator i.e. ##-ihd/dx## over ##\psi##. and integrating it from 0 to infinity. The answer I am getting is ##ih/{2(pi)a^3}##
 

Attachments

  • Untitled.png
    Untitled.png
    3.8 KB · Views: 1,850
Physics news on Phys.org
You are actually trying to calculate the expectation value of px. To do that, you must express the ground state wavefunction explicitly as a function of ##x## so that you can take the derivative. You have to do a 3d integral.
 
  • Like
Likes jedishrfu
So I did the following to integrate it in 3d:$$ \iiint_V \Psi^* (-i\hbar) \frac {d\Psi} {dr} r^2 sin\theta dr d\theta d\phi$$

The final answer i am getting is ##\frac {i\hbar}{a_b}## which does not look right because it is imaginary and momentum operator is hermitean. I can't figure out what mistake I am doing
 
You are assuming that in spherical coordinates ##p_r=-i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial r}.## It is not quite that. Do some research on the internet to find out what it is and why.
 
  • Like
Likes jedishrfu
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top