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The question I'm having trouble with (this time) is as follows:

Show that the Fermi-Dirac distribution function,

[tex] f_{FD}(E)=\frac{1}{e^{(\frac{E-E_f}{kT})}+1} [/tex]

Has the following functional form at T= 0K

(see attachment)

Now, the first thing that screamed at me was the division by T in the exponential bit. If T=0, what is going on!?

The obvious things are:

E>Ef then f(E) = 0

and

E<Ef then f(E) = 1.

I'm just really confused at how I can show that the function has that form at T=0K

Any ideas?

Cheers

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# Fermi-Dirac Statistics

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