Finding the limit of trignometric functions

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Homework Statement



Find the Limit: lim h->0 of ( h sin h)/ ( 1-cos h)

Homework Equations



lim h->0 of (sin theta)/ theta = 1
lim h->0 of (cos(h)-1)/h=0

The Attempt at a Solution


lim h->0 (h/1-cos h)*(sin h) * (1+cos h/ 1 +cos h)

= lim h->0 (h(1+cos h) * sin h)/(1-cos^2 h)

= lim h->0 (h(1+cos h))/sin h

That's how far I got, I have no idea how to continue.
Please and thank you!

 
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panadaeyes said:

Homework Statement



Find the Limit: lim h->0 of ( h sin h)/ ( 1-cos h)

Homework Equations



lim h->0 of (sin theta)/ theta = 1
lim h->0 of (cos(h)-1)/h=0

The Attempt at a Solution


lim h->0 (h/1-cos h)*(sin h) * (1+cos h/ 1 +cos h)

= lim h->0 (h(1+cos h) * sin h)/(1-cos^2 h)

= lim h->0 (h(1+cos h))/sin h

That's how far I got, I have no idea how to continue.
Please and thank you!
You're almost there!
=\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h}{sin(h)}\cdot (1 + cos(h))

You can break up the limit of a product to the product of limits, provided that both limits exist. Hint: look at your relevant equations.
 
Mark44 said:
You're almost there!
=\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h}{sin(h)}\cdot (1 + cos(h))

You can break up the limit of a product to the product of limits, provided that both limits exist. Hint: look at your relevant equations.

Okay, so I split them up, but would the equation: lim h->0 of sin h/ h = 1 be the same as the lim h->0 of h/sin h?? how does that work?

and therefore be: 1 * lim h->0 (1+ cos h)
= 1 * 2 = 2?
 
Yup, I get 2 also.

If you know limh→0 h/sinh = 1 then you know that
limh→0 (sinh/h)-1 = 1.

But (sinh/h)-1 = 1 ⇒ (sinh/h)= 1


Edit: You don’t know l’hopital’s rule right? If you do this is a rather round-about way to do this problem.
 
Last edited:
JonF said:
Yup, I get 2 also.
Agreed.
JonF said:
If you know limh→0 h/sinh = 1 then you know that
limh→0 (sinh/h)-1 = 1.

But (sinh/h)-1 = 1 ⇒ (sinh/h)= 1
Not sure what the missing symbol is - implies?
But sinh/h \neq 1. The limit as h -> 0 is 1, though.
JonF said:
Edit: You don’t know l’hopital’s rule right? If you do this is a rather round-about way to do this problem.
But if the OP doesn't know L'Hopital's Rule, this is the way to go.
 
Yah, I haven't learned L'Hopital's Rule yet

But thanks guys!
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...

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