First and Second order phase tarnsitions

AI Thread Summary
First order phase transitions involve the absorption of energy and latent heat, as seen in processes like water turning to steam or gel transitioning to a glassy state. In contrast, second order phase transitions do not involve latent heat. The specific heat capacity behaves differently in these transitions; for first order transitions, the heat capacity diverges significantly at the transition temperature (Tc) with an exponent n greater than 1. Conversely, for second order transitions, the heat capacity approaches a divergence with an exponent n less than 1, indicating a more gradual change without latent heat involvement. Understanding these differences is crucial for analyzing thermodynamic properties near phase transitions.
thearny
Messages
33
Reaction score
0
First and Second order phase transitions

At a first order phase transition as energy is added the system will absorb it, it involves latent heat I s'pose, water to steam, gel to glassy etc.. but what happens in a scond order phase transition? and in both cases how is the specific heat capacity of the system affected?
 
Last edited:
Chemistry news on Phys.org
There is no latent heat associated with a second order phase transition. In general (and for the most part, but not always), the heat capacity in the vicinity of a phase transition goes like C = k |T - Tc|^{-n}. For a first order phase transition, n > 1, and there is a strong enough divergence at Tc to require a latent heat. For second order transition, n < 1.
 
It seems like a simple enough question: what is the solubility of epsom salt in water at 20°C? A graph or table showing how it varies with temperature would be a bonus. But upon searching the internet I have been unable to determine this with confidence. Wikipedia gives the value of 113g/100ml. But other sources disagree and I can't find a definitive source for the information. I even asked chatgpt but it couldn't be sure either. I thought, naively, that this would be easy to look up without...
I was introduced to the Octet Rule recently and make me wonder, why does 8 valence electrons or a full p orbital always make an element inert? What is so special with a full p orbital? Like take Calcium for an example, its outer orbital is filled but its only the s orbital thats filled so its still reactive not so much as the Alkaline metals but still pretty reactive. Can someone explain it to me? Thanks!!

Similar threads

Back
Top