Fourier Series - Summation to Integral

erok81
Messages
454
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



My question involves the mid-point in deriving some of the equations to solve Laplace's equation in rectangular coordinates. The question may no make sense as it isn't problem specific. I can provide boundary values if necessary - just let me know.

Homework Equations



I've included a photo of how the example problem is broken up. For my question we'll choose subproblem #1.

u(x,y)=\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} A_{n} sin \frac{n \pi x}{a}sinh\frac{n\pi(b-y)}{a}

A_{n}= \frac{2}{a sinh \frac{n \pi b}{a}} \int^{a}_{0} f(x) sin \frac{n \pi x}{a} dx

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't understand how I get from the summation to the integral so I can solve for An. I see the pattern and transform the four summations in the example, but I'd really like to know the how/why it's done.

Let me know if I need to include anymore information as I don't have much regarding the actual problem. :smile:
 

Attachments

  • photo (5).jpg
    photo (5).jpg
    23.8 KB · Views: 510
Physics news on Phys.org
The non-zero boundary condition is

f(x) = u(x,0) = \sum^{\infty}_{m=1} \left(A_m\sinh\frac{m\pi b}{a}\right) \sin \frac{m \pi x}{a}

which is a Fourier series where the quantity in the parentheses is the m-th coefficient. Do you know how solve for the coefficients of a Fourier series?
 
I thought I knew how to find them.

When we were doing one dimensional waves I could find them no problem.

Where I'd have something like this.

<br /> \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \left(B_{n} cos\lambda_{n}t+B^{*}_{n}sin\lambda_{n}t)sin(n \pi x)<br />

To solve for Bn I'd take u(x,0)=f(x) and integrate.

\int^L_{-L} f(x) sin \frac{n \pi x}{L} dx

And then for the B*n I'd take ut(x,0) = g(x) and do the same thing.

\int^L_{-L} g(x) sin \frac{n \pi x}{L} dx

Then the next chapter came up using 1D heat equation and the f(x) was given (and was no longer u(x,0) like the above example. Since it was always given I just threw it into it's appropriate location and solved away. Now, because I never knew why the f(x) became what it is, I am even more confused on how to find them.

So to answer you question, I guess I don't know how to find them. :redface:
 
Suppose you have

f(x) = \sum_{m=1}^\infty b_m \sin \frac{m\pi x}{L}

Multiply both sides by sin (nπx/L) and integrate from 0 to L. Use the fact that

\int_0^L \sin \frac{m\pi x}{L}\sin \frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx = \frac{L}{2}\delta_{mn}

where δmn is the Kronecker delta.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
16
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
1K
Back
Top