How Does Friction Affect the Timing in an Atwood Machine?

AI Thread Summary
Friction in an Atwood machine affects the timing of mass descent by introducing an additional force that opposes motion. The equations of motion for the two masses are derived from Newton's second law, leading to an expression for acceleration that accounts for both masses and gravitational force. When friction is considered, the equations must incorporate the frictional force acting on the pulley, which alters the net force and subsequently the acceleration. This results in a modified time equation for mass m2 to reach the floor, reflecting the reduced effective force due to friction. Understanding these dynamics is crucial for accurately predicting the motion of the system.
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Homework Statement


It appears that the subscript is not working properly, please take m1 to means mass 1 and m2 to mean mass2

Atwood's machine consists of two masses connected by a string that passes over a pulley, as show in the figure. Consider the pulley to be massless and frictionless. Show that, if released for rest, m2 takes a time t=\sqrt{}2h(m2+m1)/g(m2+m1) to reach the floor.
[PLAIN]http://rawrspace.com/atwood.jpg

Homework Equations


I believe,
T-m1g=m1a
m2g-T=m2a

The Attempt at a Solution


So from the relevant equations I solve for T and set them equal. I get
m1a+m1g=m2g-m2a

I solved the equation so that the a's were on one side and the g's were on the other and factored.

a(m2+m1)=g(m2-m1)

Then I divided both sides by (m2-m1)

a(m2+m1)/(m2-m1)=g

Now I am kind of close I think but I am not sure where to go. I know that acceleration (a) is the distance traveled over time squared. So would I replace a with h/t2 and then solve the equation to get

t=\sqrt{}h(m2+m1)/g(m2-m1)

That is where I have hit a brick wall because they have it as 2h , I know that both masses move h distance, how did that get incorporated in however ? I also know that there is an equation 1/2(g)t2 that may be the way it was introduced, but I do not know how to relate them. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
 
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If you solve for the acceleration, you get a=g(m2-m1)/(m2+m1), which is constant. That means you can apply the equations you have for constant acceleration.
 
Alright so
We know that for mass 1 , T-m1g=m1a and for mass 2 , m2g-T=m2a
The reason I set this up is because I was trying to make sure the force is positive and since m1 is moving upward, T is greater and on the otherside, since m2 is moving downward, it is greater than T , is that the correct reasoning for how I came up with the formulas above ?

Once I have those formulas I rewrote it to

a(m2+m1)=g(m2-m1)

then solving for a you get the following
for a=g(m2-m1)/(m2+m1)

then using
x=x_0+v_0t+(1/2)at^2

you plugin and get
h=(1/2)[g(m2-m1)/(m2+m1)]t2

and finally rewriting you get
t=<br /> \sqrt{}2h(m2+m1)/g(m2+m1)<br />

Is that the correct reasoning ? I just want to make sure I understand the process.
 
Yup, that's correct. Good work.
 
Thank you very much for the help.
 
I had one additional question, It also asks

Let M be the mass of the pulley in the previous question. If the effect of friction on the pulley is considered , how long does it take m2 to reach the floor? The mass is again released from rest and height h.

To solve this would I follow the same general format as the last except now in this case I will have a frictional force acting on m2 since it is pulling downward. Or is this where something like torque would come in.

I believe for the equations I would have

T=m1a+m1g and for mass 2 , T=m2g-m2a-f

Then setting them equal and solving I get



(m2-m1)g-f=(m2+m1)a

Solving for a I get
a=[(m2-m1)g-f]/(m2+m1)

Plugging into the constant acceleration equation, I get

t=<br /> \sqrt{}2h(m2+m1)/g(m2-m1)-f<br />

Does that seem correct ? I think it is because it is taking the external forces and subtracting frictional force from it, thus reducing the force that is doing the work.
 
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