How Is Photon Energy Calculated When an Electron Moves to a Lower Energy State?

mateomy
Messages
305
Reaction score
0
An electron is trapped in an infinite one-dimensional well of width 0.251nm. Initially the electron occupies the n=4 state. Suppose the electron jumps to the ground state with the accompanying emission of a photon. What is the energy of the photon?

(Time independent)

What I did was realize that \psi(x) must equal zero at the walls, so I chose \sin(kL) and set it to n\pi, then solved for k.

Putting this value of k into the energy for a free particle (Time-ind Schrodinger), I eventually come to the expression:
<br /> \frac{h^2 n^2}{8mL^2}<br />

To find the corresponding energy of the emitted photon I plugged in the appropriate values of n and solved for the difference.

Does that seem right?

Answer:
<br /> E=\frac{h^2 15}{8m L^2}<br />

Obviously plugging in appropriate values of m and L afterward.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
To find the corresponding energy of the emitted photon I plugged in the appropriate values of n and solved for the difference.

Does that seem right?
That is certainly the method.
If this is long answer you want to write it explicitly in the math though.
 
Yeah, I have it officially written out showing steps and whatnot. Just felt lazy with the LaTex so I shortened it. Thanks.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top