Integral where I need to classify the singularities

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around classifying the singularities of the integrand \(\frac{{\sin \left( {\pi z} \right)}}{{z^4 - 1}}\), specifically focusing on the singularities at \(z = \pm 1\). Participants are exploring the nature of these singularities and their implications for integration.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the identification of singularities by setting the denominator to zero and question the classification of \(z = 1\) as a simple pole versus a removable singularity. There are inquiries about the Taylor series expansion of \(\sin(\pi z)\) around \(z = 1\) and its implications for the nature of the singularity.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights suggesting that the singularity at \(z = 1\) is removable rather than a simple pole, challenging the original poster's understanding. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of this classification, with no explicit consensus reached on the initial classification.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the classification of singularities may not affect the outcome of the integral being calculated, indicating a focus on theoretical understanding rather than practical resolution.

Benny
Messages
577
Reaction score
0
Hi I'm just working on an integral where I need to classify the singularities of the integrand \frac{{\sin \left( {\pi z} \right)}}{{z^4 - 1}}.

There are singularities at z = \pm 1, \pm i but the ones I'm interested in are at z = \pm 1.

<br /> \frac{{\sin \left( {\pi z} \right)}}{{z^4 - 1}} = \frac{{\sin \left( {\pi z} \right)}}{{\left( {z - 1} \right)\left( {z + 1} \right)\left( {z^2 + 1} \right)}}<br />

My immediate thought was that z = 1 is a simple pole but if it is I should be able to write \frac{{\sin \left( {\pi z} \right)}}{{z^4 - 1}} = \frac{{h\left( z \right)}}{{\left( {z - 1} \right)}} where h is analytic in a neighbourhood of z = 1 and non-zero at z = 1 but this doesn't seem to be the case here. The answer I have seems to be saying that z = 1 is a simple pole but at the moment I can't see how it can be.

Any input would be great thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
So the problem is that sin \pi z has a zero at z= 1. How could you write sin \pi z as a Taylor's series around z= 1?
 
How did you figure out what the singularities are?
 
I found the singularities by setting z^4 - 1 = 0.

The first term in the series for the sin(pi*z), centred at 1, is zero but the second one (which is something multiplied by (z-1)) isn't. So the singularity should be removable but then it isn't a simple pole. It makes no difference to the integral that I was calculating but it's just something that's puzzling me.
 
Yes, the singularity at z= 1 is removable, not a pole. What made you think it was a pole?
 
The answer said it was a pole.:redface: I guess in future I should use my judgement when looking at the answers.

Thanks for the help.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K