Lagrangian is invariant under the transformation

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SUMMARY

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the invariance of the Lagrangian from Peskin and Schroeder problem #11.2 under specific transformations of the fields. The Lagrangian is given by $$\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2 + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(\phi^i)^2 - \frac{\lambda}{4}((\phi^i)^2)^2 + \bar{\psi}(i\not{\partial})\psi - g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi$$. The transformations involve rotations of the fields $$\phi^1$$ and $$\phi^2$$ and a phase transformation of the fermionic field $$\psi$$. The key insight is recognizing that the term $$\cos\alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin\alpha$$ can be expressed as a complex exponential, facilitating the cancellation of terms in the Lagrangian.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Lagrangian mechanics and field theory
  • Familiarity with Peskin and Schroeder's "An Introduction to Quantum Field Theory"
  • Knowledge of Dirac matrices and their properties
  • Experience with transformations in quantum field theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the concept of invariance in quantum field theories
  • Learn about the role of Dirac matrices in fermionic transformations
  • Explore complex exponentials and their applications in quantum mechanics
  • Review the derivation of Noether's theorem and its implications for symmetries
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This discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, graduate students in quantum field theory, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of particle physics, particularly those studying Lagrangian formulations and symmetries.

Chopin
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I should mention that I'm self-studying this material, not taking it as part of a course, but since this is still a homework-style problem I figured it'd be best to post here.

Homework Statement


In Peskin and Schroeder problem #11.2, they ask us to consider the Lagrangian:
$$\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2 + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(\phi^i)^2 - \frac{\lambda}{4}((\phi^i)^2)^2 + \bar{\psi}(i\not{\partial})\psi - g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi$$
where ##i=1,2##

They then ask us to show that this Lagrangian is invariant under the transformation:

$$\phi^1 \rightarrow \cos \alpha \phi^1 - \sin \alpha \phi^2\\
\phi^2 \rightarrow \sin \alpha \phi^1 + \cos \alpha \phi^2\\
\psi \rightarrow e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\psi$$

The Attempt at a Solution


It's easy to show that ##(\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2 \rightarrow (\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2## and ##(\phi^i)^2 \rightarrow (\phi^i)^2##, so that handles all of the ##\phi## terms. I'm confused about the two ##\psi## terms, though.

1. For the ##\bar{\psi}(i\not{\partial})\psi## term, I have to commute the ##e^{-i\alpha\gamma^5/2}## past the ##\gamma^\mu## hidden in the ##\not{\partial}##, so that I can cancel it against the ##e^{i\alpha\gamma^5/2}##. My assumption is that this creates a non-trivial answer, though. Since ##\{\gamma^5, \gamma^\mu\} = 0##, if we imagine Taylor-expanding the exponential, the terms with even powers of ##\gamma^5## will be unchanged, but the terms with odd powers will pick up an extra minus sign. I'm not sure how it's possible to make everything cancel out. Am I missing something stupid here?

2. For the ##g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi##, I plugged in the transformations and got the following:

$$g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi \rightarrow g\bar{\psi}e^{i\alpha \gamma^5/2}((\cos \alpha \phi^1 - \sin \alpha \phi^2) + i\gamma^5(\sin \alpha \phi^1 + \cos \alpha \phi^2))e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\psi\\
= g\bar{\psi}e^{i\alpha \gamma^5/2}(\cos \alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin \alpha)(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\psi$$

That gets me close, since at least the form of the ##\phi## terms is right. I'm pretty sure I can now commute the ##e^{-i\alpha\gamma^5/2}## term on the right hand end all the way over to the left to cancel the ##e^{i\alpha\gamma^5/2}## term, since the only thing in the middle is more ##\gamma^5## matrices. But that still leaves me with the ##(\cos \alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin \alpha)## term, and I don't see any way to get rid of that. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong?
 
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Remember that you actually have \bar{\psi} = \psi^{\dagger} \gamma^0, so the transformation is

<br /> \bar{\psi} \rightarrow \psi^{\dagger}e^{i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\gamma^0 = \bar{\psi}e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}.<br />

This should take care of your first problem (and it's essential for the second part too of course). For your second problem, notice that the term \cos\alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin\alpha resembles a complex exponential. See if you can write it as one to combine it with the other unwanted factors.
 
Doh, I always forget about the ##\gamma^0##. Now I see how it all works out. Thanks very much!
 

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