Linear transformer and coupling coefficient

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around determining the value of Zab for a linear transformer when the coupling coefficient K' is adjusted to make Zab purely resistive at a frequency of 25k rad/s. Participants express confusion about the relationship between frequency and Zab, particularly what "purely resistive" means, confirming it indicates a zero imaginary part in the impedance. To solve the problem, one should write the complex input impedance as a function of frequency, incorporating the turns ratio and coupling coefficient, and then find K' that eliminates the imaginary component. Clarification is sought on whether K' refers to the same coupling coefficient k or if it represents mutual inductance. The conversation highlights the need for a clearer understanding of the equations involved in analyzing transformer impedance.
Rombus
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Homework Statement



The coupoing coefficient of K' of a linear transformer is adjusted so that Zab is purely reissitive when ω= 25k rad/s. What is Zab?

xik9W.png


Homework Equations


Not sure


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure how to being this problem. For one, from what I've been reading I'm not sure how the connection between frequency and Zab is made. Also, I'm not sure what the question is asking for by 'purely resistive'. Does this mean there is no comblex part?

I'm pretty sure I understand the coupling coefficient. I'm not sure how to apply it to this problem.
 
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Rombus said:

Homework Statement



The coupoing coefficient of K' of a linear transformer is adjusted so that Zab is purely reissitive when ω= 25k rad/s. What is Zab?

xik9W.png


Homework Equations


Not sure


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure how to being this problem. For one, from what I've been reading I'm not sure how the connection between frequency and Zab is made. Also, I'm not sure what the question is asking for by 'purely resistive'. Does this mean there is no comblex part?

I'm pretty sure I understand the coupling coefficient. I'm not sure how to apply it to this problem.

Yes, the "purely resistive" part means that the imaginary part of the complex impedance is zero at that frequency.

Write the equation for the complex input impedance as a function of ω, including the turns ratio and the coupling coefficient. Then set the frequency as instructed, and solve for the value of K' that will cause the imaginary part of the impedance to go to zero...
 
Thank you for the reply.

So if my equation is:
<br /> \bf{Z}ab R_1 + j \omega L_1 + \frac { \omega^2 (k ( \sqrt{L_1 L_2)^2} {R_2 + \frac{1} {j \omega C}} + j \omega L_2)}<br />

I solve for k, the coupling coefficent so that the imaginary part of the impedence is zero?

Is K' the same as k? Or is K' my mutual inductance that I find?

Edit: Not sure why my code isn't displaying correctly.
 
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