Magnetic Flux through 1 loop due to current on the other

lion_
Messages
18
Reaction score
0
The scenario is the following, I am given 2 loops with the same radius, r, a distance of d, and same current of I. In the left loop the current goes counter clockwise, in the right loop the current is clockwise. The two loops centers lie on the same axis which are perpendicular to the plane of the loops. I am asked to find the magnetic flux of the left loop due to the current on the right loop.

I know that the magnetic flux of a loop is $$\phi=B\pi r^2$$ where $$B=\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2R}$$ So how exactly do I find the Total magnetic flux on the loop due to the magnetic flux on the other? Since the current is opposite I will be subtracting the 2 fluxes.

So $$\phi_{self}=\phi_L-\phi_R$$ which is $$ \dfrac{\mu_0I}{2r} \pi d^2 - \dfrac{\mu_0I}{2r}\pi d^2=0$$ I don't think this makes much sense to me...




Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
Physics news on Phys.org
I am asked to find the magnetic flux of the left loop due to the current on the right loop.
I think this is "without the flux from the current in the right loop".

The formula you used is valid inside the considered field-generating loop only, not for other areas.

Do you know how to calculate the magnetic field of a loop for an arbitrary point in space?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top