Nanoparticle dragged off a layer and tunnelling to a STM tip, equation

  • Thread starter Thread starter rwooduk
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Stm Tunnelling
rwooduk
Messages
757
Reaction score
59
Here we have a STM tip placing a potential V across a monolayer with a single electron on it. | STM (scanning tunneling microscope) Tip |
| |
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\///////////////
(((((((((((( ELECTRON ))))))))))))))
------------------------ MONOLAYER ---------------------------it takes a potential V1 to get the electron away from the atom on the layer, it takes a potential V2 to get the electron to tunnel through the gap. So in effect we have 2 capacitors in series.

the question wants V1 and V2, i.e. the potential across each 'capacitor' and gives the solution

V1 = V (C1 / C1+ C2) - n (e / C1 + C2)

V2 = V (C2 / C1+ C2) + n (e / C1 + C2)Obviously the second term of each equation is related to the charge e and the number of charges n which effect the potential. However when i treat the problem as a circuit diagram i get:

V1 = V ( C1 / (C2 + C1))
V2 = V ( C2 / (C2 + C1))

Which is correct and would be correct if this were a normal circuit, however the solutions above each have that second term in.

My question is, how do i introduce that second term? i understand why its there, but can i say there will be an additional term which relates to the number of particles and add it to my V1 and V2 terms? But one is negative? Do I just say the sum of the additional terms must be zero so haphazardly include one with a positive term and one with a negative term?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
currently revising, still haven't been given the solutions back (even though I've asked for them) and it may come up in the exam :-///

it's really an electronics question with two capacitors in series, but i still can't derive the solutions given, any ideas please?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
22
Views
5K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
48K
Back
Top