Nodal Analysis: Imaginary Numbers

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around finding the Thevenin Equivalent for a circuit using nodal analysis with imaginary numbers. The user is uncertain about the correct formulation of a specific part of the equation, questioning whether to use (V-V0)/-150j or the original expression. After testing both formulations, they found that both yield the same results, confirming their validity. The final computed value for the last part of the equation is 0.0016597 - 0.007109j. The conversation concludes with clarification that both expressions can be used interchangeably.
HeapofAsh
Messages
6
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



I have to find the Thevinin Equivalent for the following circuit.

2mzh3ig.jpg


I am assuming the current is going out of the node.
V= node between inductor and capacitor
V0 = V[40/(40-150j)]

(V-75)/(600+150j) + (-0.02V0) + V/(40-150j) = 0

The only problem I have is with the last part of the equation, is the one I have right or is it (V-V0)/-150j
 
Physics news on Phys.org
HeapofAsh said:

Homework Statement



I have to find the Thevinin Equivalent for the following circuit.

2mzh3ig.jpg


I am assuming the current is going out of the node.
V= node between inductor and capacitor
V0 = V[40/(40-150j)]

(V-75)/(600+150j) + (-0.02V0) + V/(40-150j) = 0

The only problem I have is with the last part of the equation, is the one I have right or is it (V-V0)/-150j

Maybe they're both right! Solve both ways & see!
 
rude man said:
Maybe they're both right! Solve both ways & see!

Ok I solved just the last part two different ways since it was the only different part in the equation, and I got the same answers.

0.0016597 - 0.007109j

Thnx
 
HeapofAsh said:
Ok I solved just the last part two different ways since it was the only different part in the equation, and I got the same answers.

0.0016597 - 0.007109j

Thnx

Is this supposed to be Vo?

I get a much larger result for Vo.
 
The Electrician said:
Is this supposed to be Vo?

I get a much larger result for Vo.

No that is just the last part of the equation, V/(40-150j) which is same as (V-V0/-150j
This means I can use either of these two, which was my original question.
 
So what's your final result?
 

Similar threads

Back
Top