Prove that T:V->V T^2=T ker(T)+im(T)=V

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a linear map T from a vector space V to itself, specifically focusing on the properties of T when T squared equals T. Participants are tasked with proving that V is the direct sum of the kernel and image of T.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between the image and kernel of T, questioning how elements in V can be expressed in terms of these subspaces. There are attempts to clarify the implications of V being the sum of the kernel and image, and whether this leads to T squared equaling T.

Discussion Status

Several participants are actively engaging with the problem, providing hints and discussing the necessary steps to show the required properties. There is a focus on proving the intersection of the kernel and image is trivial, and some participants express uncertainty about the application of the rank-nullity theorem in this context.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of potential constraints regarding the participants' familiarity with certain theorems, such as the rank-nullity theorem, which may affect the discussion's direction.

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Let V be a vector space in R and T : V −> V be a linear map such that
T2 = T. Show that V = ker(T)+im(T).
does V = ker(T)  im(T) imply T2 = T? Give a
proof or counter-example.

I really just have no idea how to start this
 
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In the first direction, if something in V is not in im(T), can you break it up into a part that is in im(T) and a part that is in ker(T)?
 
I think you need to prove that V=\ker T \oplus I am T.

This consists out of two parts:

V=\ker T + I am T

I'll give you a hint for this: v=T(v)+(v-T(v))

And you also need to prove

\ker T \cap I am T = \{0\}

This shouldn't prove so hard, I think...
 
yes i did mean that, i just have no idea to add the (+) symbol on a computer.
In any case. v=T(v)+(v-T(v))
i know that v-T(v) is in ker(T). is that because v-T(v)=0? But how does this help?
 
v-T(v) is in ker T since T(v-T(v))=0.

v=T(v)+(v-T(v)) shows that V=ker T + I am T. Now you only need to show that the intersection in zero.
 
show that the intersection is 0 and then use the rank-nullity theorem
 
wisvuze said:
show that the intersection is 0 and then use the rank-nullity theorem

Yes, but I don't think he has seen the rank-nullity theorem yet. Since this would make it really trivial...
 
wisvuze said:
show that the intersection is 0

How do you do that?
 

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