Proving that a Noether charge is constant

Dixanadu
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Homework Statement


Hey guys, so I gota prove that the charge

Q=\int d^{3}xJ^{0}(\vec{x},t)

is constant in time, that \dot{Q}=0

Homework Equations



J^{\mu}=i[\phi^{\dagger}(\partial^{\mu}\phi)-(\partial^{\mu}\phi^{\dagger})\phi]

The Attempt at a Solution



So first what I did was find J^{0}=i[\phi^{\dagger}\dot{\phi}-\dot{\phi^{\dagger}}\phi]

Then plug this into Q and differentiate it w.r.t. time, which gives us:

\dot{Q}=i\int d^{3}x(\phi^{\dagger}\ddot{\phi}-\ddot{\phi^{\dagger}}\phi)

And erm, provided I've done it all right (which I probably haven't lol!) i don't know how to show that this is 0?

Thanks in advance guys
 
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What is the equation of motion for ##\phi##?
 
Hmm, I get something like 2\Box\phi+m^{2}\phi^{\dagger}=0...but I don't know how to use this?

EDIT - actually that's wrong lol you can't have phi and phi^dagger mixing! omg I need to find out what I am doing wrong
 
Okay so I am sure the equation of motion for phi is

(\Box+m^{2})\phi=0
 
So what does this tell you about ##\partial_\mu J^\mu##?
 
i know that \partial_{\mu}J^{\mu}=0 but I don't see how this helps...i know I am stupid lol -.-
 
There are several ways of using it leading to the conservation of charge (assuming that the current vanishes at infinity). Let us start with the straight forward one: What does ##\partial_\mu J^\mu =0## tell you in terms of components? Can you relate this to something that you can find in an expression for ##\dot Q##?
 
right, so \partial_{\mu}J^{\mu}=\partial_{0}J^{0}+\partial_{i}J^{i} where i goes from 1 to 3 for the 3 spatial components, and the 0th component is time. The problem is that Q dot is just a time derivative...so how do I proceed?
 
wait...if \partial_{\mu}J^{\mu}=0 does that mean that each term in the sum expansion is 0? so that \partial_{0}J^{0}=0?
 
  • #10
So you have ##\partial_0 J^0 = - \partial_i J^i = - \vec\nabla \cdot \vec J## and your integral is over space. To paraphrase Monty Python: "Hint, hint, nudge, nudge, know what I mean?" ;)
 
  • #11
Hmm its gona be something obvious I just can't see it :S
 
  • #12
Hey is it true that \phi\partial_{0}(\partial^{0}\phi^{\dagger})=\phi^{\dagger}\partial_{0}(\partial^{0}\phi)? If so then I think I got it lol!
 
  • #13
Yes, this is one of those things you will bang your head into the desk when you realize. ;)
I really find it hard to tell you more without giving the answer away ...

But let me drop a hint on the other approach before I go to bed: You can rewrite the charge ##Q## as
$$
Q(t) = \int_S d^3x J^0(\vec x, t) = \int_S d^3x\, n_\mu J^\mu,
$$
where ##S## is space at time ##t## and ##n## is the time-like normal vector to ##S## (i.e., (1,0,0,0) in your coordinate system). What is then ##Q(t) - Q(0)##?

Edit: Just one more thing which is basically just writing down what you know already ... How can you rewrite the following?
$$
\int_V (\vec\nabla \cdot \vec A(\vec x)) d^3x
$$
 
  • #14
aww I think I like the other approach lol XD You've helped me a bunch man I owe you one! I think I'll get it eventually :P

Thanks again man sleep well!
 
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