QFT Dirac Chiral Equations of Motion

orentago
Messages
27
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



From Mandl and Shaw (exercise 4.5):

Deduce the equations of motion for the fields:

\psi_L(x)\equiv{1 \over 2} (1-\gamma_5)\psi(x)
\psi_R(x)\equiv{1 \over 2} (1+\gamma_5)\psi(x)

for non-vanishing mass, and show that they decouple in the limit m=0. Hence show that the Lagrangian density

L(x)=\mathrm{i} \hbar c \overline{\psi}_L(x) \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu \psi_L(x)

describes zero-mass fermions with negative helicity only, and zero-mass antifermions with positive helicity only.

Homework Equations



Lagrangian density for Dirac field:

L=c\overline{\psi}\left[ \mathrm{i}\hbar\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu -mc\right] \psi(x)

Equations of motion:

{\partial L \over \partial \psi} - {\partial \over \partial x^\mu} \left(\partial L \over \partial \psi_{,\mu} \right)=0

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm not exactly sure where to begin, partly because I don't understand the wording of the question. Do I simply swap \psi for \psi_L and \psi_R into the Lagrangian above and sub this into the equations of motion as per normal, or should I swap \psi(x) for \psi_L(x)+\psi_R(x)?

For the second part I'll have to use the helicity operator I expect, but I'll cross that bridge when i come to it.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm still stuck on this. I tried to go for the former of the two approaches mentioned above. I let \psi\rightarrow\psi_L and \overline{\psi}\rightarrow\overline{\psi}_L, then:

L=c\overline{\psi}_L\left(\mathrm{i}\hbar\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu-mc\right)\psi_L

Splitting this into two terms and tackling individually:

c\overline{\psi}_L\mathrm{i}\hbar\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu\psi_L=c\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi}\mathrm{i}\hbar\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\psi

c\overline{\psi}_L mc\psi_L=c\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi} mc \left(1-\gamma_5\right)\psi

Then I expand the brackets and use the anticommutation relations \left[\gamma_5,\gamma^\mu\right]_{+}=0 and \left[\overline{\psi},\gamma^\mu\right]_{+}=0 to get:

c\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi}\mathrm{i}\hbar\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\psi={1 \over 2}\mathrm{i}\hbar c \left(1-\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi}\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu \psi

and

c\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi} mc \left(1-\gamma_5\right)\psi=0

So

L={1 \over 2}\mathrm{i}\hbar c \left(1-\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi}\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu \psi

Substituting this into the equations of motion and doing some rearrangement gives:

{1 \over 2} \mathrm{i}\hbar c\left(1-\gamma_5\right)\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\overline{\psi}=0

A similar process for \psi_R gives:

L={1 \over 2}\mathrm{i}\hbar c \left(1+\gamma_5\right)\overline{\psi}\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu \psi

with equations of motion:

{1 \over 2} \mathrm{i}\hbar c\left(1+\gamma_5\right)\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\overline{\psi}=0

This leaves me a bit confused. I'm pretty sure I've gone wrong somewhere, as the two equations don't decouple in the zero-mass limit. Can anyone see where I've gone wrong?

EDIT: In fact I'm fairly sure they're not coupled at all!
 
Last edited:
Does anyone have any hints for this, or should I have another stab and post my findings?
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top