QM- A bit of manipulation of expectation values.

trv
Messages
72
Reaction score
5

Homework Statement


The variance of an observable Qhat in a state with wavefunction psi is,

(delta Qhat)2=<(Qhat-<Qhat>)2>

Show that this can be written as,

(delta Qhat)2=<Qhat2>-<Qhat>2

Homework Equations



As above.

The Attempt at a Solution



(delta Qhat)2=<Qhat2-Qhat<Qhat>-<Qhat>Qhat+<Qhat>2>
L.H.S=<Qhat2-2Qhat<Qhat>+<Qhat>2>
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Right, you've got it

\langle \hat{Q}^2 -2\hat{Q}\langle \hat{Q} \rangle +\langle \hat{Q} \rangle \rangle

Now recognize that \langle X \rangle is just a number (the expectation value) and thus the expectation value of an expectation value is just the expectation value (that's a mouth full) i.e. \langle \langle \hat{Q} \rangle \rangle = \langle \hat{Q} \rangle and so on. Therefore you get:

\langle \hat{Q}^2 \rangle - 2 \langle \hat{Q} \rangle \langle \hat{Q} \rangle + \langle \hat{Q} \rangle ^2

and I assume you can take it from there
 
Yep that helps. Thanks Maverick.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top