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Stuck again

  1. Aug 22, 2004 #1
    problem: Simplify F(x) = 1 / ( 1+tan^2 x)^.5 - cos x :0<x<pi/2

    ok the only thing i can think of to substitute in was (1+tan^2 x)^.5 = sec^2 x ...

    so i got the problem down to 1 / (sec^2 x)^.5 + cos and then become stucks

    i m thinken i can just say it is 1 / (sec x) + cos... not sure if that will work or not

    thanks in advance for any help
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 22, 2004 #2
    You're on the right track...here's a hint: 1\secx = cosx
  4. Aug 22, 2004 #3
    ya but then cos x - cos x = 0....

    (i had actually worked it out using that but i didn't think the answer would be zero... esp since the next problem is the same the only differnce is that it is from pi < x < 3 pi / 2)

    i guess i just needed a second untainted opion... thanks
    Last edited: Aug 22, 2004
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