Sum of 2 EM Waves w/ Same Phase & Amp but Diff Freq

fluidistic
Gold Member
Messages
3,928
Reaction score
272

Homework Statement


Describe the sum of two EM waves that have the same initial phase and same amplitude but different frequencies such that \omega _1 >> \omega _2.

Homework Equations


E=E_0 \cos (kx -\omega t + \alpha).

The Attempt at a Solution


I summed them up and reached, after an approximation, that E_1+E_2 \approx 2 E_0 \cos \left (kx -\frac{\omega _1t}{2} + \alpha \right ) \cos \left ( \frac{\omega _ 1 t}{2} \right ). I don't know how to simplify further. It seems that the amplitude is the sum of both amplitudes and I'm not sure yet what is the frequency. It should be almost \omega _1, intuitively. I just don't know how to show it.
Any help is appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Did you consider the fact that
k=\frac{\omega}{c}
and that's why k is different for the two plane waves with two different frequencies?
 
physicsworks said:
Did you consider the fact that
k=\frac{\omega}{c}
and that's why k is different for the two plane waves with two different frequencies?

Thanks, actually I didn't consider this. I will redo the exercise.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top