Understanding Mechanical Work: Ideal Gas and Fixed Pressure

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the definition of mechanical work in the context of ideal gases and fixed pressure. It clarifies that the expression dW = -PdV is misleading, as work and heat are energy in transit rather than state functions. Participants debate whether pressure can be considered fixed, with some arguing that W should equal PV, while others emphasize that work done by a gas is represented by dW = PdV, regardless of pressure constancy. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding how pressure and volume interact during processes, noting that work calculations depend on whether pressure or volume remains constant. Ultimately, the consensus is that work is not simply PV, especially when considering varying conditions in thermodynamic processes.
theory.beta
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Hi all,

I was wondering if I am having a definition problem on mechanical work.
Since dW = -PdV (as I was told in class), is it correct to say the pressure is fixed with W = -PV, since dW = d(PV) = -VdP - PdV = -PdV suggests dP = 0?

Thanks

S.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, it is not correct. dW is misleading notation. It suggests that dW is an infinitesimal change in some quantity, W, which the system possesses (a so-called 'function of state'). This is not the case. [For the same reason, dQ is also misleading notation, suggesting, wrongly, that some quantity, Q, is possessed by the system.] Work and heat are both energy IN TRANSIT, rather than residing in the system.

PV is a function of state (because P and V are both functions of state), but it is a mistake to regard dW as a differential of pV (or -PV).
 
Hi Philip,

Thank you for the reply. However, I still think P is fixed in general, leading W = PV. Let's look at an integral form of ideal gas law. In essence, we have dT = (PdV+VdP)/R; integrating this would give the ideal gas law. But the actual integrated solution as PV = nRT implies either dV or dP to be zero.
Another example would be the heat function in a system of fixed volume, where Q = W = E +PV (Landau textbook chapter 2, the W is a little confusing). He took the derivative of W into dP and dV separately.
Any thoughts? Thanks again.

S.
 
The differential work done by the gas on the surroundings is dW=PdV, not dW=-PdV. Even if the pressure isn't constant, the differential work is still PdV. This comes from dW=Fdl, where F is the force and dl is the differential displacement. Since F = PA, dW = PAdl. But Adl = dV. So dW = PdV. See my Blog on my PF personal page.

Chet
 
theory.beta said:
Hi Philip,

Thank you for the reply. However, I still think P is fixed in general, leading W = PV. Let's look at an integral form of ideal gas law. In essence, we have dT = (PdV+VdP)/R; integrating this would give the ideal gas law. But the actual integrated solution as PV = nRT implies either dV or dP to be zero.
The integral of dT is not PV unless you start from absolute 0.

nRΔT = nR\int_A^B dT = \int_A^B (Pdv + VdP) = \int_A^B d(PV) = P(B)V(B)-P(A)V(A) = ΔPV

P could be constant in which case nRΔT = PΔV (i.e. ∫VdP = 0). Or V could be constant, in which case nRΔT = VΔP. Or P and V could both change. One cannot determine \int Pdv or \int VdP separately for a given process without knowing how P or V varies during the process. But from the ideal gas law, PV = nRT, we know that d(PV) = nRdT

AM
 
theory.beta said:
I still think P is fixed in general, leading W = PV.

Two of the best known ideal cases (but good approximations to real changes) are isothermal and adiabatic expansions. P varies in both of these.

When P is constant, then W = P ΔV, not PV.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top