Velocity of a steel ball bearing due to magnetic force

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the final velocity of a 5g steel ball bearing being pulled by a neodymium magnet with a force of 6.1 pounds on a frictionless surface. Using the equation F=MA, the initial calculation yields an unrealistic acceleration of 5420 m/s², leading to a final velocity of 32.9 m/s after traveling 0.1 meters. Participants suggest considering kinetic energy and the relationship between distance, speed, and uniform acceleration for a more accurate approach. The conversation also touches on the concept of a Gauss rifle, exploring how momentum transfer could affect the motion of additional bearings in a magnetic setup. The complexity of the problem indicates that further analysis is needed to refine the calculations.
jonc1258
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Homework Statement


Find the final velocity of a 5g steel ball bearing being pulled by a neodymium magnet with a pull force of 6.1 pounds (27.1 Newtons) in a straight line on a frictionless surface after being pulled for .1 meters

Homework Equations


F=MA

The Attempt at a Solution



f=ma
27.1 = .05a
a = 542m/s^2
The bearing travels for .1 meters, which is 1.85E-4 as far as it will travel in the first second (if the above solution for acceleration is correct), so t must be 1.85E-4 seconds.
v = (.1 m)/(1.85E-4 s) = 542m/s

As you can probably see by how unrealistic the numbers I came up with are, I'm not sure what to do. Could you maybe think about this in terms of kinetic energy? I got to feeling that this problem is more complicated than I initially thought.
 
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jonc1258 said:
27.1 = .05a
How many g in a kg?
The bearing travels for .1 meters, which is 1.85E-4 as far as it will travel in the first second (if the above solution for acceleration is correct), so t must be 1.85E-4 seconds.
No, it doesn't work like that. What equation do you know relating distance, speed and uniform acceleration?
 
27.1 = .005a
a = 5420m/s^2

v^{2}_{f} = v^{2}_{i} + 2ad
v^{2}_{f} = (0) + 2(5420)(.1)
vf^2 = \sqrt{1084}
v=32.9m/s

Yes?
 
What if the first bearing were the trigger for a Gauss rifle?
http://sci-toys.com/scitoys/scitoys/magnets/gauss_rifle/ready_to_fire.jpg
If the second magnet was .1 meters in front of the first magnet and there was another bearing lying against the second magnet (like in the picture), wouldn't the momentum of the trigger transfer to the second bearing? And the second bearing would accelerate because of the force of the 3rd magnet in the setup, but wouldn't it be pulled back by the attraction of the second magnet?
 
jonc1258 said:
27.1 = .005a
a = 5420m/s^2

v^{2}_{f} = v^{2}_{i} + 2ad
v^{2}_{f} = (0) + 2(5420)(.1)
vf^2 = \sqrt{1084}
v=32.9m/s

Yes?
Yes.
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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