B Where does a quantum experiment *begin*?

  • #201
atyy said:
I don't discuss this because if all you have is unitary evolution, you will end up with unitary evolution of the universe with all the problems of interpretation including MWI etc.
What's wrong with a universe that evolves unitarily?

atyy said:
My aim in this thread is to defend the minimal interpretation or shut up and calculate because it works. Vanhees71 claims to support shut up and calculate or the minimal interpretation, but if you notice, it is he that is always bringing up issues of interpretation by objecting to collapse.
As I said, it seems to me the only thing that can be a matter of disagreement here is that whether collapse happens for an open quantum system or not(whether its emergent as I say, or fundamental as you say, we should first establish that it happens because vanhees71 doesn't think that it does!). Can you give a reference that it does? I mean, experimentally. Something like this!(I'm not saying its a good example, just an example!)
 
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  • #202
@rubi: I haven't read it carefully, but the article I was thinking about is State Vector Reduction in Relativistic Quantum Mechanics: An Introduction by Breuer and Petruccione in the book "Open systems and measurement in relativistic quantum theory: proceedings of the workshop held at the Istituto italiano per gli studi filosofici, Naples, April 3-4, 1998, edited by Breuer and Petruccione.

http://omnibus.uni-freiburg.de/~breuer/paper/proc98-1.pdf
 
  • #203
rubi said:
There is of course no counterexample to a proven theorem. Using frequencies instead of probabilities doesn't change that. The existence of a local probabilistic model that predicts the QM probabilities proves beyond doubt that these probabilities are compatible with locality. What's wrong with your counterexample? Frequency proofs of Bell's theorem make the same assumptions, they are just less obvious, because nobody is used to the frequency formulation. The choice of subsequences in the frequency formulation of probability is dual to the choice of a conditional probabilities in the measure formulation.
This paper https://arxiv.org/abs/1412.6987 is not published in peer reviewed journal so as I understand you leave it up to me to point out the flaws in this local model. Fine.

Statement that QM probability space is embedded in larger classical probability space means that model exploits detection loophole. However model avoids detectable unpaired detection by making both entangled particles for particular combination of Alice's and Bob's measurement settings undetected. So it makes detection or non detection at one side depend on the setting on the other side. Author of the paper sort of explains this in section 9.3. I will quote the whole section:

"Our model of embedding of the quantum probabilities in the Kolmogorov model can be considered as an extension of the space of hidden variables to include parameters generating selections of experimental settings. Such a hidden variable depends on the parameters for the selections of angles at both labs. One can say that a hidden variable is nonlocal (although observed quantities are local). However, this nonlocal structure of a hidden variable reflects the nonlocal setup of the experiment, and nothing else."

The statement in bold clearly says that this model is exploiting superdeterminism loophole and that is not acceptable in scientific model.
 
  • #204
rubi said:
There is of course no counterexample to a proven theorem. Using frequencies instead of probabilities doesn't change that. The existence of a local probabilistic model that predicts the QM probabilities proves beyond doubt that these probabilities are compatible with locality. What's wrong with your counterexample? Frequency proofs of Bell's theorem make the same assumptions, they are just less obvious, because nobody is used to the frequency formulation. The choice of subsequences in the frequency formulation of probability is dual to the choice of a conditional probabilities in the measure formulation.
Now about your objections to my counterexample. There is no need to use frequencies in my counterexample. This counterexample boils down to the statement that there is no set of possible detections sequences that satisfy QM predictions (exactly) and locality conditions. If you are unsure about provided argument you can take some limit for detection sequences and test all possible combinations using brute-force search but as I see, the argument why it is not possible is rather trivial and does not require such a test to see the point.

If you rely on authority more than checking the arguments yourself there is Eberhard's paper http://link.aps.org/doi/10.1103/PhysRevA.47.R747. In this paper Eberhard has included Bell type inequality proof that takes similar approach as in the counterexample I gave.
 
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  • #207
atyy said:
The minimal interpretation is agnostic about "cause". "Local interactions" are properties of Hamiltonians. The collapse does not even affect the Hamiltonian, so how can the collapse be related to interactions?
Come on, if you say there is a collapse, it can only be caused by the interaction of the particle with the measurement apparatus. If you say there is no interaction, you cannot measure anything.
 
  • #208
zonde said:
Forum guidelines contains a link where one can check acceptable sources http://ip-science.thomsonreuters.com/mjl/
I can not find WorldScientific there.
World Scientific is not a journal, but a publisher. The journal itself is Open Systems & Information Dynamics, and it's impact factor for 2015 is 1.3.

I think it is a proper peer-reviewed journal and that it falls within the guidelines at PF. That said, because something has been properly published doesn't mean that is mainstream science or even right. But discussion of that paper will be allowed here.
 
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  • #209
zonde said:
This paper https://arxiv.org/abs/1412.6987 is not published in peer reviewed journal so as I understand you leave it up to me to point out the flaws in this local model. Fine.
The model in the paper was published in a reputable journal in the reference [12] of that paper. The paper is just a cooked down version of that reference.

Statement that QM probability space is embedded in larger classical probability space means that model exploits detection loophole.
The model considers all detections, so it doesn't exploit the detection loophole. Moreover, the model uses a different method to embedd the probabilities into a Kolmogorov space. It doesn't use marginals, but rather conditionals.

The statement in bold clearly says that this model is exploiting superdeterminism loophole and that is not acceptable in scientific model.
The model doesn't exploit the superdeterminism loophole, because it is not deterministic. Only a deterministic theory can be superdeterministic. The model however is purely stochastic. The non-local variables occur in the conditional probabilities and that is natural, since the quantum probabilities depend on the angles of both Alice and Bob, so we must condition on a non-local pair of angles to obtain the quantum probabilities. The author shows that despite of this, one obtains a local stochastic model.

zonde said:
Now about your objections to my counterexample. There is no need to use frequencies in my counterexample. This counterexample boils down to the statement that there is no set of possible detections sequences that satisfy QM predictions (exactly) and locality conditions. If you are unsure about provided argument you can take some limit for detection sequences and test all possible combinations using brute-force search but as I see, the argument why it is not possible is rather trivial and does not require such a test to see the point.

If you rely on authority more than checking the arguments yourself there is Eberhard's paper http://link.aps.org/doi/10.1103/PhysRevA.47.R747. In this paper Eberhard has included Bell type inequality proof that takes similar approach as in the counterexample I gave.
As I said, the use of subsequences in frequency versions of the inequality amounts exactly to the use conditionals in the probability setting. You can't just select a subsequence and expect it to be distributed in the same way as the original sequence. This assumption must be made in all proofs of the inequality. The inequality can't be proved without this assumption.

@atyy: I haven't had time to read your papers yet, but I will respond later.
 
  • #210
ddd123 said:
On my part, I don't know what to think. On one hand, the long-range correlations are there because of measurement, and avoiding collapse doesn't practically account for compound measurements (you have to believe it would work if you could do the practically impossible calculation of treating the whole measurement device quantum mechanically). On the other hand, collapse is frame-dependent, although the consequences are the same whatever frame you choose in the end, so it seems to beg for a deeper explanation.
This discussion is a mess, and I'm sorry that I got involved into it again. The physics is very clear, and there is no problem.

An experiment happens in the lab and not in Hilbert space. Let's take the example of the Aspect-like experiment. There, via parametric downconversion a polarization-entangled photon pair is produced by shining a laser into a certain type of birefringent crystal. The interaction of the em. field produced by the laser is local (according to QED). It is localized in the sense that it takes place in the crystal and thus the extension of the interaction region is at most the size of the crystal (a few ##\mathrm{cm}^3## I'd say). Via some optical devices you have a two-photon state with the polarization part given as
$$|\psi \rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (|HV \rangle - |VH \rangle).$$
According to the usual rules of probabilities to get the polarization state of the single photons you have to trace over the other photon, i.e., you have
$$\hat{\rho}_A=\mathrm{Tr}_B |\psi \rangle \langle \psi |=\frac{1}{2} \hat{1},$$
and the same for ##\hat{\rho}_B##. As you see the single-photon polarizations are completely undetermined, i.e., you have unpolarized photons.

Now Alice (A) and Bob (B) perform a polarization measurement with the polarizer in H direction at very far distant places, such that according to the finite signal propagation (maximal speed is the speed of light) the measurement of A's photon's polarization cannot affect B's photon's polarization at the moment he is measuring it. Within QED this is ensured by the locality of the interaction of the photons with the measurement device and the microcausality of QED (it's built in into the theory by construction!).

Now, although both photons are precisely unpolarized due to the entanglement of the prepared photon pair the polarization measurements are strictly correlated. According to the rules of QT the probabilities for the four possible outcomes (VV, HH, VH, HV) are
$$P_{HH}=|\langle HH|\psi \rangle|^2=P_{VV}=|\langle VV|\psi \rangle|^2=0, \quad $$P_{VH}=P_{HV}=\frac{1}{2}.$$
So although the photons are completely unpolarized there's a correlation for the pairs. You never find both H polarized or both V polarized but always with perpendicular polarizations. If A measures H B measures V and vice versa.

According to this description this correlation is due to the preparation of the two-photon state in the very beginning and not due to the polarization measurement of A or B. Note that also A and B can find this correlation only by exchanging information according to their precise measurement protocols, i.e., both must keep track of the times they register the photons to know which two photons come from one pair and then afterwards they can check the correlation. In no way can you propagate instantaneously information by such a setup.

Also note that there's no collapse of the state as a whole via the measurement of either A or B. It's only such that if A finds H, she knows that B's photon will be found to have polarization B, but for Bob that doesn't change anything, i.e., the only thing he knows is that he will find with probability 50% either H or V. Also A finds with 50% probability H. So everything is consistent, and there is no spooky action at a distance, which is implied by the assumption of a collapse, but as you see, we don't need the collapse to understand the correlations. Further according to QT you cannot say more about the outcome of these measurements than the said probabilities, and the understanding is that the polarization of the single photons is really maximally indetermined.

In the hope that there may be a way to mimic these QT probabilities with a deterministic theory one came up with the idea of hidden variables which take determined values in any case and they are just unknown to A and B. Now Bell has shown that this assumption together with locality of interactions (between the photons and the polarization measurement devices) leads to an inequality for certain correlation functions, which is violated by QT (here QED which uses local interactions only by construction!). Indeed in corresponding experiments with such entangled photons (here you have to set the relative angle of the polarizers to another value than 0 or ##\pi/2##) that the Bell inequality is violated with an astonishing significance (google for Zeilinger to find the details) and with the same significance the QT prediction is confirmed. The conclusion is that there is at least no deterministic hidden-variable theory with local interactions that is in accordance with QT and the observations. Only QT (in this case QED) admits the locality of interactions at the same time with the strong correlations described by entanglement which in the sense of violating Bell's inequality are stronger than the correlations possible for local hidden-variable theories.
 
  • #211
vanhees71 said:
Also note that there's no collapse of the state as a whole via the measurement of either A or B. It's only such that if A finds H, she knows that B's photon will be found to have polarization B, but for Bob that doesn't change anything, i.e., the only thing he knows is that he will find with probability 50% either H or V. Also A finds with 50% probability H. So everything is consistent, and there is no spooky action at a distance, which is implied by the assumption of a collapse, but as you see, we don't need the collapse to understand the correlations. Further according to QT you cannot say more about the outcome of these measurements than the said probabilities, and the understanding is that the polarization of the single photons is really maximally indetermined.
What you describe doesn't need collapse only if we make the assumption that the quantum state is subjective, so after A measures her photon, she assigns a pure state to the B's photon but B himself assigns a mixed state to his photon. Otherwise if you want to assume that the quantum state is objective, your own description leads to collapse.
 
  • #212
vanhees71 said:
If the collapse is not caused by the interaction between the measured system and the measurement device, by what is it caused then?
I think that, by "collapse", @atyy means what I call the "update". The update is nothing but a thinking tool. The update is a process in the mind of a person who thinks about results of measurement and their interpretation in terms of quantum theory. There is no update without a person who understands some quantum physics. At the neurological level, the relevant processes in the brain can very well be described by local classical physics. In this sense, the update is caused by local interactions between different parts of the brain. For the update, one does not even need a real measurement in the laboratory. It is sufficient to think about thought experiments. As a theoretical physicist, I make quantum updates very often.
 
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  • #213
Shayan.J said:
What you describe doesn't need collapse only if we make the assumption that the quantum state is subjective, so after A measures her photon, she assigns a pure state to the B's photon but B himself assigns a mixed state to his photon. Otherwise if you want to assume that the quantum state is objective, your own description leads to collapse.
Sure. That's the same with "classical probabilities". If I through a dice the probaility to get "6" is 1/6 and I may look at it and find it shows "6". Then the probability is 1 for showing 6, but if I don't let you see the result, all you can do is still to assign the probability 1/6 to get "6". That's nothing specific to QT probabilities.
 
  • #214
Demystifier said:
I think that, by "collapse", @atyy means what I call the "update". The update is nothing but a thinking tool. The update is a process in the mind of a person who thinks about results of measurement and their interpretation in terms of quantum theory. There is no update without a person who understands some quantum physics. The relevant processes in the brain can very well be described by local classical physics. In this sense, the update is caused by local interactions between different parts of the brain. For the update, one does not even need a real measurement in the laboratory. It is sufficient to think about thought experiments. As a theoretical physicist, I make quantum updates very often.

The problem with these discussions between you,atyy and vanhees71 (with helpful comments from stevendaryl of course!) that come up from time to time, continues exactly the same and never comes to a conclusion, is collapse is never exactly defined by you and atyy. In this thread I can see at least three different meanings to the concept of collapse and I'm never sure which one you two are talking about. So I think its better that you two come to a consensus about this before another discussion with vanhees71!
 
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  • #215
Shayan.J said:
The problem with these discussions between you,atyy and vanhees71 (with helpful comments from stevendaryl of course!) that come up from time to time, continues exactly the same and never comes to a conclusio, is collapse is never exactly defined by you and atyy. In this thread I can see at least three different meanings to the concept of collapse and I'm never sure which one you two are talking about. So I think its better that you two come to a consensus about this before another discussion with vanhees71!
You are absolutely right!
But I think I explained pretty well that by "collapse" I really mean the mental process which would better be called the update. And I think @atyy has the same meaning in mind. If we could all agree to call it update, and not to use the dirty c-word, I think the problems would disappear.
 
  • #216
Demystifier said:
But I think I defined pretty well that by "collapse" I really mean the mental process which would better be called the update.
Do you agree that in the description given in the post #210, only A has to update the state she assigns to B's photon and B doesn't update the state he assigns to his photon?
Demystifier said:
I think @atyy has the same meaning in mind.
I doubt it!
atyy said:
I don't discuss this because if all you have is unitary evolution, you will end up with unitary evolution of the universe with all the problems of interpretation including MWI etc.
 
  • #217
atyy said:
My aim in this thread is to defend the minimal interpretation or shut up and calculate because it works.
The only honest way to defend the shut-up-and-calculate doctrine is to shut up and calculate. Obviously, this is not what you are doing. :-p
 
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  • #218
Demystifier said:
You are absolutely right!
But I think I explained pretty well that by "collapse" I really mean the mental process which would better be called the update. And I think @atyy has the same meaning in mind. If we could all agree to call it update, and not to use the dirty c-word, I think the problems would disappear.
Well, then we agree, and can stop the discussion. I'm pretty sure, however, that atyy has another meaning of collapse in mind, because he always denies the fundamental concept of locality of interactions in relativistic local QFT (at least I understand his arguments in that way).
 
  • #219
vanhees71 said:
An experiment happens in the lab and not in Hilbert space.
I agree. But I think it is still not clear where do quantum interactions happen? In the lab? In the Hilbert space? Somewhere else?
 
  • #220
Well interactions happen in the lab too. You can have an entire universe consisting of particles not interacting with any of our detectors at all. It's completely irrelevant to us then, because it has no effect whatsoever to detectors in the lab!
 
  • #221
vanhees71 said:
Well, then we agree, and can stop the discussion. I'm pretty sure, however, that atyy has another meaning of collapse in mind, because he always denies the fundamental concept of locality of interactions in relativistic local QFT (at least I understand his arguments in that way).
Then let us wait for him to clarify his position.
 
  • #222
vanhees71 said:
Come on, if you say there is a collapse, it can only be caused by the interaction of the particle with the measurement apparatus. If you say there is no interaction, you cannot measure anything.

How about the Elitzur-Vaidman bomb tester? 1/4 of the time a measurement without interaction occurs. If there were interaction, the bomb would explode. If there weren't measurement, you wouldn't know that the bomb works.

Thanks for the long reply above but what I meant involved compound measurements. In your modelling, with two successive measurements you have to change your psi in between non-unitarily to get to a prediction consistent with the experimental result. What I think atyy is saying is this: for the time being minimal has to include collapse as a postulate, otherwise you're simply hoping that it would not be necessary if you modeled the measurement device quantum mechanically. You haven't proven that state vector reduction is not necessary, you hope it isn't.
 
  • #223
vanhees71 said:
Well interactions happen in the lab too.
Well, I find it confusing. You have defined interactions very precisely in a mathematical language, in terms of local Lagrangians (e.g. QED). But I don't see Lagrangians in the lab. So if you claim that interactions happen in the lab, and not in the Hilbert space, then it looks as if you need a new definition of interaction.
 
  • #224
ddd123 said:
How about the Elitzur-Vaidman bomb tester? 1/4 of the time a measurement without interaction occurs. If there were interaction, the bomb would explode. If there weren't measurement, you wouldn't know that the bomb works.
Perhaps the Elitzur-Vaidman bomb does not involve an interaction in the lab. But it definitely involves an interaction that happens in the Hilbert space.
 
  • #225
Sure, you have a theory with all its math. The theory predicts the outcome of measurements (in the case of QT probabilities for finding certain values of observables), which you can compare with observations. If the predictions are correct (within the uncertainties of measurements and statistics) you call it a successful theory and use it to design further experiments etc.

An interaction happens, e.g., at the LHC every time two protons out of the two beams collide and also the produced particles are registered by the detectors through interactions of them with the detector. Of course, there's nowhere a Fock space, action functionals and the like mathematical abstracta involved.

As already in Newtonian mechanics, you call "interactions" (or "forces") what causes changes of states, and that's well observable in the lab! If I kick a ball, it will move with a different momentum than before, which is a well observable fact about the ball and the (in this case electromagnetic) interaction of my foot with the ball.
 
  • #226
vanhees71 said:
you call "interactions" (or "forces") what causes changes of states, and that's well observable in the lab!
What do you mean "states"?
States in the lab, such as actual position of a macroscopic pointer?
Or states in the Hilbert space, such as |pointer up> + |pointer down>?

A related question: Are quantum forces deterministic or random?
 
  • #227
Sure, states in the lab. Physics is about states in the lab. That's why I always write a state is represented by a statistical operator or an observable is represented by a self-adjoint operator in a Hilbert space etc. Of course this refers to the mathematical formalism. An observable itself is defined operationally by a measurement procedure (or an equivalence class of measurement procedures). Analogously states are defined as equivalence classes of preparation procedures.
 
  • #228
vanhees71 said:
Sure, states in the lab.
Fine, so states in the lab can change. These changes are caused by local forces. The local forces may act in a non-deterministic way. Am I right so far?

But changes are not the only thing observed in the lab. Another observed thing are correlations between the changes. So what causes the correlations? Are correlations also caused by those local forces?
 
  • #229
vanhees71 said:
Come on, if you say there is a collapse, it can only be caused by the interaction of the particle with the measurement apparatus. If you say there is no interaction, you cannot measure anything.

But that interaction is not in the Hamiltonian. So if you say the "local interaction" of QFT is well-specified by the mathematical formalism, I will say that the Hamiltonian does not specify any interaction between the measurement apparatus and the quantum system at all. Since collapse does not affect the Hamiltonian, it does not cause any nonlocal interaction at all.
 
  • #230
Demystifier said:
Fine, so states in the lab can change. These changes are caused by local forces. The local forces may act in a non-deterministic way. Am I right so far?

But changes are not the only thing observed in the lab. Another observed thing are correlations between the changes. So what causes the correlations? Are correlations also caused by those local forces?
Sure, the correlations are also caused by some interactions (see my description of the preparation procedure for polarization-entangled two-photon states).
 
  • #231
atyy said:
But that interaction is not in the Hamiltonian. So if you say the "local interaction" of QFT is well-specified by the mathematical formalism, I will say that the Hamiltonian does not specify any interaction between the measurement apparatus and the quantum system at all. Since collapse does not affect the Hamiltonian, it does not cause any nonlocal interaction at all.
It's not in the Hamiltonian, because you choose not to describe it, but take the functioning of the measurement device for granted. Of course, as long as a theory (here relativstic local QFT) is not known to have limits of applicability (which for sure it has, but it's not known yet), I've all reason to believe that also the interaction between the measured object and the measurement device is ruled by the laws described by the theory. Hence, this interactions are the very same local interactions used in the Hamiltonian.

E.g., to describe the creation of a polarization-entangled photon pair with (in-medium) QED, you have to make a model Hamiltonian (as done by Hong and Mandel in the mid 1980ies) and see whether it correctly describes satisfactorily the observed (statistical!) facts about these pairs (which to my knowledge it does). As long as there is not an experiment showing that the creation of entangled photon pairs cannot be described by these standard QED local interactions, I keep it as the valid description. The same holds true for the theory of photon detection, which are also very well described using the standard local QED interactions.
 
  • #232
vanhees71 said:
That's why I always write a state is represented by a statistical operator or an observable is represented by a self-adjoint operator in a Hilbert space etc.
So interaction is represented by Lagrangian. (And Lagrangian can be represented as an operator in the Hilbert space.) Is that correct?

But is that representation faithful? Is there a 1-1 correspondence between
i) observed change in the lab (cat dies), and
ii) change represented by local interaction in the Hilbert space (|cat alive>+|cat dead>)?
 
  • #233
rubi said:
Moreover, the model uses a different method to embedd the probabilities into a Kolmogorov space. It doesn't use marginals, but rather conditionals.
I would like to check if I understand correctly what you mean with conditionals (as opposed to marginals). With conditionals you mean that only measurement results are embedded in probability space (and there is no reference to ##\lambda## that Bell used)?

rubi said:
As I said, the use of subsequences in frequency versions of the inequality amounts exactly to the use conditionals in the probability setting. You can't just select a subsequence and expect it to be distributed in the same way as the original sequence. This assumption must be made in all proofs of the inequality. The inequality can't be proved without this assumption.
I'm not sure about what assumption you are talking. Can you try to reword it? Alice's subsequences under identical measurement settings at Alice's side but for different measurement settings at Bob's side can be identical. This is required by locality condition.
 
  • #234
Demystifier said:
Perhaps the Elitzur-Vaidman bomb does not involve an interaction in the lab. But it definitely involves an interaction that happens in the Hilbert space.

But then it is a non local one.
 
  • #235
Demystifier said:
So interaction is represented by Lagrangian. (And Lagrangian can be represented as an operator in the Hilbert space.) Is that correct?

But is that representation faithful? Is there a 1-1 correspondence between
i) observed change in the lab (cat dies), and
ii) change represented by local interaction in the Hilbert space (|cat alive>+|cat dead>)?
The only thing QT tells you, given the state described by the ket you wrote down, is the probability for the cat being dead or alive after a certain time putting the poor animal into the box. It's not clear in which sense there is a "1-1 correspondence". I'd say, since I can check the prediction of the probabilities only on a sufficiently large ensemble with a given statistical significance there is a 1-1 correspondence at best with such ensembles.
 
  • #236
ddd123 said:
But then it is a non local one.
It depends on what do you mean by "non-local". There is no entanglement, so it is local in the Bell sense.
 
  • #237
vanhees71 said:
The only thing QT tells you, given the state described by the ket you wrote down, is the probability for the cat being dead or alive after a certain time putting the poor animal into the box. It's not clear in which sense there is a "1-1 correspondence". I'd say, since I can check the prediction of the probabilities only on a sufficiently large ensemble with a given statistical significance there is a 1-1 correspondence at best with such ensembles.
So there is a 1-1 correspondence at the level of large ensembles, but not at the level of single measurements. Even a single change in the lab is supposed to be caused by a force, but that single-change lab-force is not always faithfully represented by local QFT in the Hilbert space. Would you agree?
 
  • #238
This is an empty question since QT doesn't tell you anything about a single event except probabilities. The interaction itself is described in the formalism by the Hamiltonian and as such is 1-1 (up to equivalence like gauge invariance or similar equivalences).
 
  • #239
vanhees71 said:
This is an empty question since QT doesn't tell you anything about a single event except probabilities.
But I don't ask a question about quantum theory. Quantum theory works in the Hilbert space, and I don't ask a question about Hilbert space. I ask a question about forces in the lab. And lab, as you said, does not live in the Hilbert space. So why would my question about lab be an empty question? Fine, the question cannot be answered by quantum theory. But this is a defect of the theory, not a defect of the question. If some question cannot be answered by quantum theory, it doesn't mean that the question is empty. It means that we need a different theory.

Or perhaps you take for granted that there is no and there will never be a theory behind quantum theory? (I hope you don't.)

Or if anything is empty at all, it is the intersection between my question and the quantum theory. But the question as such is not empty.
 
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  • #240
vanhees71 said:
The interaction itself is described in the formalism by the Hamiltonian and as such is 1-1
You are contradicting yourself. You said that all changes in the lab are caused by interactions. If so, then even single measurement changes are described by interactions. Yet, you said that single measurement changes are not represented by quantum interactions. Therefore, some interactions in the lab are not represented by quantum interactions. In other words, the representation is not 1-1. Q.E.D.
 
  • #241
vanhees71 said:
It's not in the Hamiltonian, because you choose not to describe it, but take the functioning of the measurement device for granted. Of course, as long as a theory (here relativstic local QFT) is not known to have limits of applicability (which for sure it has, but it's not known yet), I've all reason to believe that also the interaction between the measured object and the measurement device is ruled by the laws described by the theory. Hence, this interactions are the very same local interactions used in the Hamiltonian.

E.g., to describe the creation of a polarization-entangled photon pair with (in-medium) QED, you have to make a model Hamiltonian (as done by Hong and Mandel in the mid 1980ies) and see whether it correctly describes satisfactorily the observed (statistical!) facts about these pairs (which to my knowledge it does). As long as there is not an experiment showing that the creation of entangled photon pairs cannot be described by these standard QED local interactions, I keep it as the valid description. The same holds true for the theory of photon detection, which are also very well described using the standard local QED interactions.

If you believe that quantum theory makes sense with the Hamiltonian extending to the whole universe and having only unitary evolution with neither hidden variables nor many-worlds or something else, then you are mistaken. Also, you are not using the minimal interpretation.
 
  • #242
Demystifier said:
Then let us wait for him to clarify his position.

I always mean it in the update sense. If I mean it in the physical sense, I would be referring to GRW or CSL, and would state so clearly. While I am using standard quantum theory in a quantum forum, I should be entitled to use standard terminology in the orthodox interpretation.

However, the problem is vanhees71 is always bringing interpretation in.

If by local interaction, he means some property of the Hamiltonian, then collapse clearly does not affect the Hamiltonian so it does not even make sense to say that collapse is a nonlocal interaction.

But as you see from his post, he thinks there can be a wave function of the universe with no hidden variables and no many-worlds. This is a big mistake - this is the mistake of Ballentine and Peres.
 
  • #243
atyy said:
I always mean it in the update sense.
So I was right about you. :smile:

atyy said:
But as you see from his post, he thinks there can be a wave function of the universe with no hidden variables and no many-worlds. This is a big mistake - this is the mistake of Ballentine and Peres.
I don't think that Peres makes this mistake. Indeed, he claims explicitly that wave function of the universe does not make sense. As far as I can see, Peres is one of rare physicists who uses the orthodox interpretation consistently. (Or can you cite the place where he does make such a mistake?)
 
  • #244
Of course, the "wave function of the universe" doesn't make sense. This I emphasized several times. I think, I stop participating in the discussion here, because obviously I cannot make my standpoint clear, and it's only noise left in this thread. Maybe it's even high time to close it and get back to physics!
 
  • #245
While this was an interesting thread, I think that it has deviated far from its point of origin. This was tagged as a B-level thread, after all!

Thread closed.
 
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