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Homework Statement
why \frac{1}{z} don't have derivative? i know that ( \log z )'=\frac{1}{z} so why \int \frac{1}{z} \mbox{d} z don't exist?
The function \( \frac{1}{z} \) does not possess an antiderivative across the entire complex plane due to the nature of its domain. While the derivative of \( \log z \) is \( \frac{1}{z} \), the logarithm is only defined on the principal branch, which excludes certain points in the complex plane. Consequently, there is no single function \( f(z) \) such that \( f'(z) = \frac{1}{z} \) for all \( z \in \mathbb{C} \).
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