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zenterix

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- Why does an ideal gas satisfy ##\left (\frac{\partial U}{\partial P}\right )_T = 0##?

The book I am reading says that by definition, the ideal gas satisfies the equations

$$PV=nRT\tag{1}$$

$$\left (\frac{\partial U}{\partial P}\right )_T = 0\tag{2}$$

where does (2) come from? In other words, what justifies this equation in the definition above?

$$PV=nRT\tag{1}$$

$$\left (\frac{\partial U}{\partial P}\right )_T = 0\tag{2}$$

where does (2) come from? In other words, what justifies this equation in the definition above?