Why Don't Angular Momentum and the Square of Momentum Commute?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the commutation relationship between angular momentum (L) and the square of momentum (P^2) in quantum mechanics. Participants are exploring the implications of this relationship and the mathematical reasoning behind it.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate that the commutator of L and P^2 should be zero, but questions arise regarding the correctness of their calculations. Another participant identifies a mistake in the original poster's reasoning and provides an alternative calculation. There is also a discussion about the implications of conservation laws for free particles.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the mathematical details of the problem. Some have offered corrections and insights, leading to a deeper exploration of the implications of the commutation relationship. There is no explicit consensus on the conclusion, but the discussion is productive and focused on clarifying the reasoning involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of their findings in the context of quantum mechanics, particularly regarding conservation laws and the behavior of free particles. There is an acknowledgment of potential misunderstandings in the original calculations.

Legion81
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I have been told that L and P^2 do not commute, but I don't see why. It seems like the commutator should be zero.

<br /> <br /> \left[ \vec{L} , P^2 \right] = \left[ L^k , P_i P_i \right]<br /> = \left[ L_k , P_i \right] P_i - P_i \left[ L_k , P_i \right]<br /> = \left( - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{km} P_m \right) P_i - P_i \left( - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{km} P_m \right) <br /> = - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{km} \left( P_m P_i - P_i P_m \right) <br /> = - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{km} \left[ P_m , P_i \right] <br /> = 0<br /> <br />

What is wrong with this?
 
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Oh, I found one mistake but it still leads me to the same conclusion. The second equality should be plus, not minus: [A,BC] = [A,B]C+B[A,C]:

<br /> \left[ \vec{L} , P^2 \right] = \left[ L^k , P_i P_i \right] = \left[ L^k , P_i \right] P_i + P_i \left[ L^k , P_i \right] = \left( - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{k m} P_m \right) P_i + P_i \left( - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{k m} P_m \right) = - i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{k m} \left( P_m P_i + P_i P_m \right)<br />
and since P_m , P_i commute,
<br /> \left[ \vec{L} , P^2 \right] = - 2 i \hbar \epsilon_{i}^{k m} P_m P_i = 2 \left[ L^k , P_i \right] P_i = 2 \left[ \vec{L} , P^2 \right]<br />
but the only thing which satisfies
<br /> \left[ \vec{L} , P^2 \right] = 2 \left[ \vec{L} , P^2 \right]<br />
is zero.
So I'm back to saying that L and P^2 commute. Any ideas?
 
Last edited:
Your calculations are correct. If \hat{L}_i did not commute with \hat{P}^2, angular momentum would not be conserved for a free particle.
 
fzero, I didn't even think of that! A free particle would have zero potential energy, so for L to be conserved it would still have to commute with the Hamiltonian, and that means L and P^2 must commute (2m factor is irrelevant). I thought for sure I was making a mistake somewhere since my mind is a notorious hangout for mathematical absurdities. Maybe I can get some points back that were taken off on my test. Thanks.
 

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