Calculating Work Done by a Variable Force on a Particle-Like Object

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To calculate the work done by a variable force on a 7.0 kg particle-like object, the position function is given as x = 3.0t - 4.0t^2 + 1.0t^3. The acceleration is determined by taking the second derivative of the position function, resulting in a = -8 + 6t. The work integral is set up as W = ∫ F(x)dx = ∫ madx, but complications arise with the variables t and dx. By substituting dx with the velocity function and applying the change of variable theorem, the integral can be simplified to yield the correct solution for work done from t = 0 to t = 3.
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A single force acts on a 7.0 kg particle-like object in such a way that the position of the object as a function of time is given by x = 3.0t - 4.0t^2 + 1.0t^3, with x in meters and t in seconds. Find the work done on the object by the force from t = 0 to t = 3.0 s.


I want to use the equation W = \int F(x)dx = \int madx
To find acceleration, I took the second derivative of the position function:
x(t) = 3t-4t^2+t^3
v=x'(t) = 3-8t+3t^2
a=x''(t) = -8+6t

When I go to plug values into my work integral, I get W=\int m(6t-8)dx
I would then take mass out of the integral, but having t and dx in the integral is evil. Do I say that dx=x'(t) and so substitute my velocity function (with dt tacked onto the end) for dx?
 
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"Yes". The change of variable theorem states that,

\int_{x(t=0)}^{x(t=3)}F(x)dx = \int_0^3F(x(t))\dot{x}(t)dt

But as you cleverly noted, F(x(t))=ma(t).
 
mbrmbrg said:
A single force acts on a 7.0 kg particle-like object in such a way that the position of the object as a function of time is given by x = 3.0t - 4.0t^2 + 1.0t^3, with x in meters and t in seconds. Find the work done on the object by the force from t = 0 to t = 3.0 s.


I want to use the equation W = \int F(x)dx = \int madx
To find acceleration, I took the second derivative of the position function:
x(t) = 3t-4t^2+t^3
v=x'(t) = 3-8t+3t^2
a=x''(t) = -8+6t

When I go to plug values into my work integral, I get W=\int m(6t-8)dx
I would then take mass out of the integral, but having t and dx in the integral is evil. Do I say that dx=x'(t) and so substitute my velocity function (with dt tacked onto the end) for dx?
That looks like it will take away the evil and give you the correct solution!l
 
Thank you very kindly!
 
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