NutriGrainKiller
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The following has been extracted from a larger assignment, the details of which I do not believe are necessary. Anywho, here it is:
\frac{1}{\pi}\int\frac{1}{x(\lambda-x)} e^{-(\frac{x-\mu_1}{\lambda-x})^2} e^{-(\frac{x-\mu_2}{x})^2} dx<br /> <br />
things to keep in mind: \lambda as well as \mu_1 and \mu_2is only a variable, and the integral ranges from -infiniti to +infiniti.
What I've tried: distributing out, trying to combine/reduce exponentials (unsuccessful), tried u/du substitution - this seems like it would work, but i couldn't get it to.
I have completed four semesters of undergraduate calculus, so this isn't new however I'm not quite sure how to go about reducing this. Any tips would be greatly appreciated.
\frac{1}{\pi}\int\frac{1}{x(\lambda-x)} e^{-(\frac{x-\mu_1}{\lambda-x})^2} e^{-(\frac{x-\mu_2}{x})^2} dx<br /> <br />
things to keep in mind: \lambda as well as \mu_1 and \mu_2is only a variable, and the integral ranges from -infiniti to +infiniti.
What I've tried: distributing out, trying to combine/reduce exponentials (unsuccessful), tried u/du substitution - this seems like it would work, but i couldn't get it to.
I have completed four semesters of undergraduate calculus, so this isn't new however I'm not quite sure how to go about reducing this. Any tips would be greatly appreciated.
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