Hi,
I'm not sure if I've understood the task here correctly
For the Implicit function theorem, ##F(x,y)=0## must hold for all ##(x,y)## for which ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0)## it follows that ##f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## so I can apply the Implicit function theorem for these ##(x,y)##.
Then I can write...