Angular Frequency and In-Phase Motion: A Scientific Inquiry

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My question is; why for a system oscillating in a normal mode does the lowest angular frequency relate to the particles in that system oscillating in phase. I understand that the signs of the corresponding vector are the same,but what relation is it to the lowest angular frequency.

Thanks for any suggestions
 
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Please refer to Einstein modes. Normal mode can have any frequency (not only lowest one).
 
But the question ask: why for in-phase motion is the associated angular frequency the lowest, intermediate or highest (obviously there are 3 normal modes). The answer is the lowest angular frequency, but the question then asks; is this to be expected? ie why is the lowest angular frequency associated with in phase motion