Angular momentum and expectation value

jaejoon89
Messages
187
Reaction score
0
My teacher said that angular momentum doesn't have orientation in space - but how can that be? Isn't cos(theta) = L_z / |L vector| ?

Also (an unrelated question) could somebody give an example of how the integration process goes when you are trying to get an expectation value for something which isn't an eigenfunction? i.e. I know if it's an eigenfunction, everything normalizes so you just get the observable as the expectation value. But what if it isn't?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
jaejoon89 said:
My teacher said that angular momentum doesn't have orientation in space - but how can that be? Isn't cos(theta) = L_z / |L vector| ?
Although you can define Lz as the projection of the angular momentum along an external magnetic field, that's just the z-component. The angular momentum vector precesses about the magnetic field, so there is no fixed direction. Maybe that's what your teacher meant.
jaejoon89 said:
Also (an unrelated question) could somebody give an example of how the integration process goes when you are trying to get an expectation value for something which isn't an eigenfunction? i.e. I know if it's an eigenfunction, everything normalizes so you just get the observable as the expectation value. But what if it isn't?

Consider two energy eigenstates, |ψ1> and |ψ2>. Then

H|ψ1>=E11> and H|ψ2>=E22>. Now make a new wavefunction that is a normalized linear combination of these, to be specific

|\varphi>=\sqrt{\frac{1}{3}}|\psi_{1}>+\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}|\psi_{2}>

Then

H|\varphi>=\sqrt{\frac{1}{3}}E_{1}|\psi_{1}>+\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}E_{2}|\psi_{2}>

Clearly |φ> is not an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian H. The expectation value of the energy however, is

<E>= <\varphi|H|\varphi>=\frac{1}{3}E_{1}+\frac{2}{3}E_{2}

In other words the expectation value is neither of the eigenvalues, but a weighted average where the weights are the probability coefficients of the eigenstates.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top