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In Landau and Lifgarbagez, Vol. 1, it says "the component of angular momentum along any axis (say the z-axis) can be found by differentiation of the Lagrangian:
M_{z} = \Sigma_{a} \partial L/\partial \dot{\varphi_{a}}
where \varphi is the angle of rotation about the z axis. This is evident from the proof of the law of conservation of momentum..."
They are referring to the proof on pg. 19, where a finite rotation is applied to an arbitrary isolated system, the resulting change in the Lagrangian is required to be zero (from isotropy of space), and the time derivative of the angular momentum is thereby shown to be zero.
My question: How is the former evident from the latter? I've spent quite a while thinking about it and it seems anything but evident right now!
M_{z} = \Sigma_{a} \partial L/\partial \dot{\varphi_{a}}
where \varphi is the angle of rotation about the z axis. This is evident from the proof of the law of conservation of momentum..."
They are referring to the proof on pg. 19, where a finite rotation is applied to an arbitrary isolated system, the resulting change in the Lagrangian is required to be zero (from isotropy of space), and the time derivative of the angular momentum is thereby shown to be zero.
My question: How is the former evident from the latter? I've spent quite a while thinking about it and it seems anything but evident right now!