Bernoulli equation exercise from Fanning and Moody

In summary: If you have calculated the loss coefficient K correctly, then the pressure at point A should be 19.4 kPa.
  • #1
williamcarter
153
4

Homework Statement


I would really appreciate it if you could give me a hand with this exercise, not sure on what I've done.
Data:
kden.JPG

Moody:
kzen.JPG


L=55*10-3m
D=10-1m
k=0.0002m

Homework Equations


##Re=\frac{D*u*ρ} {μ}##
##Re=\frac{4*m} {pi*D*μ}##
Relative roughness ##ξ=\frac k D## where k=rougness and D=diameter
f=fanning friction factor from Moddy chart as ξ ∩ Re
K=loss coefficient =##\frac{f*4L} {D}+∑Ki##
where Ki=other losses
##Δhloss=\frac{K*u^2} {2g}##
Bernoulli:##\frac {P1} {ρg} ##+h1 +##\frac {u1^2} {2g} ## = ##\frac {P2} {ρg} ##+h2 +##\frac {u2^2} {2g} +Δhloss##

The Attempt at a Solution


i)Re=?
Q=0.05m^3/s
μ=1.2*10-6m2/s

##Re=\frac{4*m} {pi*D*μ}##
where m=ρ*Q
m=103*0.05
m=50 Kg/s
=>##Re=\frac{4*50} {pi*10^-1*1.2*10^-6}##
=>Re=530516477 turbulent flow

ii)f=?fanning friction
##ξ=\frac k D## =##ξ=\frac {0.0002} {10^-1}##
ξ=2*10-3
=> f=0.006 from ξ∩Re on Moody Chart

iii)Assumptions
A: hA=7m PA=? uA=0
B hB=0m(datum) PB=0(atomospheric) uB=0;

:##\frac {P1} {ρg} ##+h1 +##\frac {u1^2} {2g} ## = ##\frac {P2} {ρg} ##+h2 +##\frac {u2^2} {2g} +Δhloss##

Pluggin in the assumptions this means:
##Δhloss=\frac {PA} {ρg} +hA##
=>##PA=(Δhloss-hA)*ρg##
Δhloss=K*u2/2*g
K=##\frac{f*4L} {D}+∑Ki##=##\frac{0.006*4*55*10^-3} {10^-1}+0.5+3*0.8+2*0.25+0.95##

##K=4.36##

Q=0.05 m^3/s=>##u=\frac {Q} {A}## ##u=\frac {0.05} {pi*(10^-1)^2/4}##
u=6.36m/s

##Δhloss=\frac {K*u^2} {2g}##=##Δhloss=\frac {4.36*6.36^2} {2*9.81}##

Δhloss=8.98m

##PA=(Δhloss-hA)*ρg##

##PA=(8.98-7)*10^3*9.81##

=>PA=19423.8 Pa
 
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  • #2
williamcarter said:

Homework Statement


I would really appreciate it if you could give me a hand with this exercise, not sure on what I've done.
Data:
View attachment 104815
Moody:
View attachment 104816

L=55*10-3m
D=10-1m
k=0.0002m

Homework Equations


##Re=\frac{D*u*ρ} {μ}##
##Re=\frac{4*m} {pi*D*μ}##
Relative roughness ##ξ=\frac k D## where k=rougness and D=diameter
f=fanning friction factor from Moddy chart as ξ ∩ Re
K=loss coefficient =##\frac{f*4L} {D}+∑Ki##
where Ki=other losses
##Δhloss=\frac{K*u^2} {2g}##
Bernoulli:##\frac {P1} {ρg} ##+h1 +##\frac {u1^2} {2g} ## = ##\frac {P2} {ρg} ##+h2 +##\frac {u2^2} {2g} +Δhloss##

The Attempt at a Solution


i)Re=?
Q=0.05m^3/s
μ=1.2*10-6m2/s

##Re=\frac{4*m} {pi*D*μ}##
where m=ρ*Q
m=103*0.05
m=50 Kg/s
=>##Re=\frac{4*50} {pi*10^-1*1.2*10^-6}##
=>Re=530516477 turbulent flow
The Reynolds number is calculated incorrectly. You are given the kinematic viscosity, not the dynamic viscosity.
 
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  • #3
Chestermiller said:
The Reynolds number is calculated incorrectly. You are given the kinematic viscosity, not the dynamic viscosity.

##Re=\frac{D*u} {∂}##
where D=diameter u=velocity ∂=kinematic viscosity
u=Q/A=6.36m/s

##Re=\frac{10^{-1}*6.36} {1.2*10^{-6}}##

Re=530000=>Re=5.3*105

##ξ=\frac{k} {D}=2*10^{-3}##=0.002

ξ∩Re=>f=0.006 from Moody Chart
 
  • #4
williamcarter said:
##Re=\frac{D*u} {∂}##
where D=diameter u=velocity ∂=kinematic viscosity
u=Q/A=6.36m/s

##Re=\frac{10^{-1}*6.36} {1.2*10^{-6}}##

Re=530000=>Re=5.3*105

##ξ=\frac{k} {D}=2*10^{-3}##=0.002

ξ∩Re=>f=0.006 from Moody Chart
This is better. I haven't checked the rest of the analysis.
 
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  • #5
Chestermiller said:
This is better. I haven't checked the rest of the analysis.
Thank you for your reply.
I would really appreciate it , if you can and have time , if you could check the rest of the exercise, as I am not sure if it is correct.
In both cases the f=0.006
 
  • #6
williamcarter said:
Thank you for your reply.
I would really appreciate it , if you can and have time , if you could check the rest of the exercise, as I am not sure if it is correct.
In both cases the f=0.006
It looks OK to me.
 
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1. What is the Bernoulli equation and how is it used in the Fanning and Moody exercise?

The Bernoulli equation is a fundamental equation in fluid mechanics that relates the pressure, velocity, and elevation of a fluid. In the Fanning and Moody exercise, the Bernoulli equation is used to calculate the head loss in a pipe, which is important for determining the pressure and flow rate in a fluid system.

2. What is the significance of the Fanning and Moody exercise in fluid mechanics?

The Fanning and Moody exercise is significant in fluid mechanics because it provides a practical application of the Bernoulli equation. It allows engineers and scientists to calculate the head loss in a pipe and determine the pressure and flow rate in a fluid system, which is crucial for designing and analyzing fluid systems in various industries.

3. How do Fanning and Moody factors affect the Bernoulli equation exercise?

The Fanning and Moody factors, also known as friction factors, are used to account for the effects of pipe roughness and turbulence on the head loss in a pipe. These factors are incorporated into the Bernoulli equation exercise to provide a more accurate calculation of head loss and ultimately, pressure and flow rate in a fluid system.

4. Can the Bernoulli equation exercise be applied to all types of fluid systems?

Yes, the Bernoulli equation exercise can be applied to all types of fluid systems, including both laminar and turbulent flow. However, for turbulent flow, the Fanning and Moody factors must be taken into account to accurately calculate the head loss.

5. How does the Bernoulli equation exercise demonstrate the conservation of energy in fluid systems?

The Bernoulli equation exercise demonstrates the conservation of energy in fluid systems by showing that the total energy of the fluid remains constant throughout the system. As the fluid flows through a pipe, the energy is constantly being converted between pressure, kinetic energy, and potential energy, but the total energy remains the same, as shown by the Bernoulli equation.

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