Can anyone explain this anomaly?

AI Thread Summary
During an experiment involving a spinning magnet inside a coil, an unexpected trend was observed where slower magnet speeds resulted in higher induced voltages and output power. This contradicts Faraday's Law, which suggests that faster spinning should yield greater induced emf. The data indicated that as input voltage decreased, the output voltage and current from the coil increased, raising questions about the experimental setup's accuracy. Potential factors discussed include the suitability of the measuring equipment and the influence of nearby noise from a brushed motor. The findings challenge conventional expectations and warrant further investigation into the observed anomaly.
Fielding
Messages
1
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Hi, so during an experiment, I spun a magnet inside a coil of wire in order to induce an emf, and measure the input power and output power. One of the things I found was that the slower the magnet spun (ie the smaller the input voltage to the motor) the larger the induced voltage and the greater the output power from the coil. Here is some of my data;

9.98v and 0.25A -> 0.06V and 0.04µA
4.95v and 0.15A -> 0.08V and 0.01µA
6.01v and 0.15A -> 0.11V and 0.15 µA

This was a general trend I found when changing variables such as the number of turns in the coil and the strength of the magnet. All my tests showed this trend. According to the Faraday Law and the equation for induced emf (E=Blv where B is the magnetic flux density, v the velocity of the coil/magnet and l the length of wire) the faster the magnet is spinning the higher the expected emf and therefore voltage. Can anyone think of any reasons why this might be happening?

Homework Equations


E=Blv
P=IV

The Attempt at a Solution


I thought maybe the skin effect, where resistance increases with higher AC frequencies, might have something to do with it but it requires frequencies much much higher than the ones I am using to have any effect.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Most likely the setup was not what you thought you had. Perhaps the voltmeter you were using may not have been suitable for the frequency range involved?
 
Fielding said:
4.95v and 0.15A -> 0.08V and 0.01µA

0.01µA is just 10nA and the output power <1nW.

Would it take much noise to cause a problem? You have a 1W brushed motor in close proximity?
 
Fielding said:
4.95v and 0.15A -> 0.08V and 0.01µA
6.01v and 0.15A -> 0.11V and 0.15 µA
I may be reading this wrong. So the magnet is spinning with 4.95 velocity and producing .08V and 0.01 micro-amperes? Then when you increase the velocity to 6.01 the produced voltage and current is also increased? Isnt that what is expected?
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
TL;DR Summary: I came across this question from a Sri Lankan A-level textbook. Question - An ice cube with a length of 10 cm is immersed in water at 0 °C. An observer observes the ice cube from the water, and it seems to be 7.75 cm long. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, find the height of the ice cube immersed in the water. I could not understand how the apparent height of the ice cube in the water depends on the height of the ice cube immersed in the water. Does anyone have an...
Back
Top