Electric Field On A Point Charge Due To A Uniformly Charged Rod

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the electric field at a point charge located a distance "a" from a uniformly charged rod of length "L." The user correctly identifies the linear charge density as λ = Q/L and sets up an integral to find the electric field produced by an infinitesimal charge segment. The key point of confusion is determining the distance "r" from the point charge to the charge segment on the rod, which is clarified to be r = (a - y). The user confirms that this approach accounts for the varying distances along the rod, ensuring the calculations are accurate. Overall, the thought process and setup for the integral are validated by the responses received.
Unix
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Homework Statement


This is regarding setting up an integral to calculate the electric field on a point charge that is at a distance "a" from a uniformly charged rod of length "L". I have attached a picture of my work, which includes a diagram of the problem, and wanted to know if my thought process is correct.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Finding a general expression for the electric field produced by an infinitely small "piece" of charge and then adding them all up. The charged rod is parallel to the y-axis and it's center is at the origin.

We know that the linear charge density is

λ=(Q/L).

For an infinitely small piece of charge, we say λ=(dQ/dL), so dQ=λ*dL


The formula for the Electric field on a point charge is E=q/((4∏ε)*r^2)

To find an expression for the Electric field produced by the small piece of charge, we can replace q with dQ

dE=dQ/((4∏ε)*r^2)

(substitue λ*dL for dQ)

dE=λ*dL / ((4∏ε)*r^2)


The part that I am unsure about is finding an expression for the "r". Would it be reasonable to say that "r = (a+y)", where y is the variable that I am integrating, and my limits of integration would be [(-L/2),(L/2)]? The reason I am saying (a+y) is because if I plug "-L/2" in for y, then (a-(L/2)) is the distance from the point charge "a" to the end of the rod that is above the origin. If I plug in "L/2" for y, then (a+(L/2)) takes care of the distance from the point charge "a" to the end of the rod below the origin. If I plug in 0 for y, then I simply get "a" which makes sense, since that is the distance from the origin to the point charge.

I hope my post was formatted correctly, please let me know if It is not, and I will be sure to make changes in the future
 

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Hi Unix! :smile:

(try using the X2 button just above the Reply box :wink:)

Yes that all seems ok so far …

what is worrying you about that?​

(btw, are you sure the diagram is correct? these questions usually have the point charge perpendicular to the rod)
 
Unix said:

Homework Statement


This is regarding setting up an integral to calculate the electric field on a point charge that is at a distance "a" from a uniformly charged rod of length "L". I have attached a picture of my work, which includes a diagram of the problem, and wanted to know if my thought process is correct.

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution


Finding a general expression for the electric field produced by an infinitely small "piece" of charge and then adding them all up. The charged rod is parallel to the y-axis and it's center is at the origin.

We know that the linear charge density is

λ=(Q/L).

For an infinitely small piece of charge, we say λ=(dQ/dL), so dQ=λ*dL

The formula for the Electric field on a point charge is E=q/((4∏ε)*r^2)

To find an expression for the Electric field produced by the small piece of charge, we can replace q with dQ

dE=dQ/((4∏ε)*r^2)

(substitue λ*dL for dQ)

dE=λ*dL / ((4∏ε)*r^2)


The part that I am unsure about is finding an expression for the "r". Would it be reasonable to say that "r = (a+y)", where y is the variable that I am integrating, and my limits of integration would be [(-L/2),(L/2)]? The reason I am saying (a+y) is because if I plug "-L/2" in for y, then (a-(L/2)) is the distance from the point charge "a" to the end of the rod that is above the origin. If I plug in "L/2" for y, then (a+(L/2)) takes care of the distance from the point charge "a" to the end of the rod below the origin. If I plug in 0 for y, then I simply get "a" which makes sense, since that is the distance from the origin to the point charge.

I hope my post was formatted correctly, please let me know if It is not, and I will be sure to make changes in the future
The distance from y=a to any arbitrary y on the charged rod is a - y .

Therefore, r = (a - y) .
 
Thank you for your quick responses! :)

Tiny-tim: All of the examples in my physics book did in fact consist of charges that were perpendicular to the rod. I hadn't tried a problem where the charge was on the same axis as the rod so I thought I would give it a shot and make sure I could reason it out if I saw it on an exam (I mainly posted up here to get confirmation on my thought process :) ).

SammyS:
I plugged in a few numbers into (a-y) and it makes sense now. By having (a-y), then the negative sign accounts for points that are below the axis such as (a-(-L/2)) correct?
 
Unix said:
Thank you for your quick responses! :)
...

SammyS:
I plugged in a few numbers into (a-y) and it makes sense now. By having (a-y), then the negative sign accounts for points that are below the axis such as (a-(-L/2)) correct?
Yes.
 
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